Development of malignant melanoma is associated with which of the following risk factors? a) Individuals with a history of severe sunburn Ultraviolet rays are strongly suspected as the etiology of malignant melanoma.

Development of malignant melanoma is associated with which
of the following risk factors?
a) Individuals with a history of severe sunburn
Ultraviolet rays are strongly suspected as the etiology of malignant
melanoma.
b) African-American heritage
Fair-skinned, blue-eyed, light-haired people of Celtic or Scandinavian
origin are at higher risk for development of malignant melanoma.
c) People who tan easily
People who burn and do not tan are at risk for development of
malignant melanoma.
d) Elderly individuals residing in the Northeast
Elderly individuals who retire to the southwestern United States appear
to have a higher incidence of development of malignant melanoma.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Individuals with a history of severe sunburn
Ultraviolet rays are strongly suspected as the etiology of malignant
melanoma.
by

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The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

In which range of body mass index (BMI) are patients considered to have increased risk for problems associated with poor nutritional status? a) Below 24 Additionally, higher mortality rates in hospitalized patients and community-dwelling elderly are associated with individuals who have low BMI. b) 25-29 Those who have a BMI of 25 to 29 are considered overweight. c) 30 to 39 Those who have BMI of 30-39 are considered obese. d) Over 40 Those who have BMI over 40 are considered extremely obese.

Description : In which range of body mass index (BMI) are patients considered to have increased risk for problems associated with poor nutritional status? a) Below 24 Additionally, higher mortality rates in hospitalized ... considered obese. d) Over 40 Those who have BMI over 40 are considered extremely obese.

Last Answer : a) Below 24 Additionally, higher mortality rates in hospitalized patients and community-dwelling elderly are associated with individuals who have low BMI.

During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize. b) Promotion During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods. c) Initiation During this first step, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

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Last Answer : a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize.

The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative lamellar keratitis occurring in the first week after surgery. Studies suggest that since no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

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Last Answer : a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative ... no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Description : Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type ... ) Advanced age Advanced age, gender, and race are non-modifiable risk factors for stroke.

Last Answer : a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Which of the following characteristics are risk factors for colorectal cancer? a) Familial polyposis Family history of colon cancer or familial polyposis is a risk factor for colorectal cancer.

Description : Which of the following characteristics are risk factors for colorectal cancer? a) Familial polyposis Family history of colon cancer or familial polyposis is a risk factor for colorectal cancer. b) Age ... of skin cancer History of skin cancer is not a recognized risk factor for colorectal cancer.

Last Answer : a) Familial polyposis Family history of colon cancer or familial polyposis is a risk factor for colorectal cancer.

Which of the following statements accurately describes a risk factor for depression? a) History of physical or sexual abuse History of physical or sexual abuse and current substance abuse are risk factors for depression. b) Male gender A risk factor for depression is female gender. c) Age over 50 years A risk factor for depression is onset before 40 years. d) Negative family history of depression Family history of depression is a risk factor.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately describes a risk factor for depression? a) History of physical or sexual abuse History of physical or sexual abuse and current substance abuse are risk ... years. d) Negative family history of depression Family history of depression is a risk factor.

Last Answer : a) History of physical or sexual abuse History of physical or sexual abuse and current substance abuse are risk factors for depression.

Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors. b) Occupational exposure While a risk factor, occupational exposure is not the most important risk factor for development of COPD. c) Air pollution Air pollution is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor. d) Genetic abnormalities A deficiency of alpha-antitrypsin is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor.

Description : Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors. b) ... is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor.

Last Answer : a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors.

Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress, impaired functioning, or accentuated risk of enduring severe suffering or possible death? a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994. b) Emotional disorder There is no universally accepted definition of what constitutes an emotional disorder. c) Anxiety Anxiety is defined as fear of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

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Last Answer : a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994.

Moles with the potential to develop into malignant melanoma are A. intradermal nevi B. dysplastic nevi C. giant nevi D. verrucae

Description : Moles with the potential to develop into malignant melanoma are A. intradermal nevi B. dysplastic nevi C. giant nevi D. verrucae

Last Answer : Ans: B

In the case of malignant melanoma occurring intra orally, which of the following is true: a. Uncommon on the palate when occurs intra orally. b. Should not biopsied, as this will increase metasis . c. The 5 year survival rate is 20%. d. The incidence of oral melanoma is the same as those on the skin. e. Commonly occurs intra orally.

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Last Answer : c. The 5 year survival rate is 20%.

In the case of malignant melanoma occurring intra orally, which of the following is true: A. Uncommon on the palate when occurs intra orally B. Should not biopsied, as this will increase metasis C. The 5 years survival rate is 20% D. The incidence of oral melanoma is the same as those on the skin E. Commonly occurs intra orally

Description : In the case of malignant melanoma occurring intra orally, which of the following is true: A. Uncommon on the palate when occurs intra orally B. Should not biopsied, as this will increase metasis ... The incidence of oral melanoma is the same as those on the skin E. Commonly occurs intra orally

Last Answer : C. The 5 years survival rate is 20%

Which of the following neoplastic diseases is almost curable by chemotherapy: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Choriocarcinoma C. Malignant melanoma D. Colorectal carcinoma

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Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 1 diabetes (previously referred to as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [IDDM])? a) Presence of islet cell antibodies Individuals with Type 1 diabetes often have islet cell antibodies.

Description : Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 1 diabetes (previously referred to as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [IDDM])? a) Presence of islet cell antibodies ... Requirement for oral hypoglycemic agents Individuals with Type 1 diabetes need insulin to preserve life.

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Which of the following conditions of the inner ear is associated with normal hearing? a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by severe vertigo with normal hearing.

Description : Which of the following conditions of the inner ear is associated with normal hearing? a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by ... Endolymphatic hydrops refers to dilation in the endolymmphatic space associated with Meniere's disease.

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If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision of diagnostic support and eventual release of vaccine if a case is confirmed. Until instructed otherwise by the CDC, healthcare providers should carefully establish isolation with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

Description : If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office ... very different from that of chickenpox. With chickenpox, lesions appear at different developmental stages.

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Which of the following statements describe the pathophysiology of post-polio syndrome? a) The exact cause is unknown, but aging or muscle overuse is suspected. The exact cause of post-polio syndrome is not known but researchers suspect that with aging or muscle overuse the neurons not destroyed originally by the poliovirus are unable to continue generating axon sprouts.

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When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, indicates squamous cell carcinoma. b) normal. A class 1 Pap smear is interpreted as normal. c) probably normal. A class 2 Pap smear is interpreted as probably normal. d) suspicious. A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.

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Which of the following manifestations is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia? a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia. b) Hypotension Hypotension is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia. c) Elevated temperature The rise in temperature is actually a late sign that develops rapidly. d) Oliguria Scant urinary output is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia.

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Last Answer : a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia.

A malignant tumor a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body. b) demonstrates cells that are well-differentiated. Cells of malignant tumors are undifferentiated. c) is usually slow growing. Malignant tumors demonstrate variable rate of growth; however, the more anaplastic the tumor, the faster its growth. d) grows by expansion. A malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.

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Last Answer : a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body.

Which of the following “awareness contexts” is characterized by the patient, the family, and the health care professionals being aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise? a) Mutual pretense awareness In mutual pretense awareness, the patient, the family and the health care professionals are aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise. b) Closed awareness In closed awareness, the patient is unaware of his terminality in a context where others are aware. c) Suspected awareness In suspected awareness, the patient suspects what others know and attempts to find it out. d) Open awareness In open awareness, all are aware that the patient is dying and are able to openly acknowledge that reality.

Description : Which of the following awareness contexts is characterized by the patient, the family, and the health care professionals being aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise? a) Mutual ... , all are aware that the patient is dying and are able to openly acknowledge that reality.

Last Answer : a) Mutual pretense awareness In mutual pretense awareness, the patient, the family and the health care professionals are aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise.

Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness. b) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. c) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. d) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

Description : Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the ... comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

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Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco. b) It is three times more common in women in the U.S. than men. In the United States, carcinoma of the esophagus occurs more than three times as often in men as in women. c) It is seen more frequently in Caucasians than in African Americans. It is seen more frequently in African Americans than in Caucasians. d) It usually occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

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Last Answer : a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco.

When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly. b) pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is associated with immobility. c) dehydration. Dehydration may lead to poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Description : When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The ... poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Last Answer : a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly.

The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures. b) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia. c) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, ... disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Last Answer : a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures.

Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include a) lack of exposure to sunshine. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, low calcium and vitamin D diet, cigarette smoking, use of alcohol and/or caffeine, and lack of weight-bearing exercise.

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Last Answer : a) lack of exposure to sunshine. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, low calcium and vitamin D diet, cigarette smoking, use of alcohol and/or caffeine, and lack of weight-bearing exercise.

Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Of the following risk factors, which is considered modifiable? a) Diabetes mellitus While diabetes mellitus cannot be cured, blood sugars and symptomatology can be managed through healthy heart living. b) Gender Gender is considered a non-modifiable risk factor. c) Race Race is considered a non-modifiable risk factor. d) Increasing age Increasing age is considered a non-modifiable risk factor.

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Last Answer : a) Diabetes mellitus While diabetes mellitus cannot be cured, blood sugars and symptomatology can be managed through healthy heart living.

What safety actions does the nurse need to take for a patient on oxygen therapy who is undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the room where the MRI is located. For patient safety the nurse must make sure no patient care equipment (e.g., portable oxygen tanks) that contains metal or metal parts enters the room where the MRI is located. The magnetic field generated by the unit is so strong that any metal-containing items will be strongly attracted and can literally be pulled away with such great force that they can fly like projectiles towards the magnet.

Description : What safety actions does the nurse need to take for a patient on oxygen therapy who is undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the ... oxygen tanks) that contains metal or metal parts enters the room where the MRI is located.

Last Answer : a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the room where the MRI is located. For patient safety the nurse must make sure no patient care equipment (e.g., portable oxygen ... literally be pulled away with such great force that they can fly like projectiles towards the magnet.

A complete absence of fecal urobilinogen is strongly suggestive of (A) Obstruction of bile duct (B) Hemolytic jaundice (C) Intrahepatic cholestasis (D) Malignant obstructive disease

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Last Answer : Answer : D

Reduction in fever within ___ h withdrawal of drug strongly suggests that suspected drug causing allergy. a) 38 h b) 24h c) 48h d) 16 h e) 20 h

Description : Reduction in fever within ___ h withdrawal of drug strongly suggests that suspected drug causing allergy. a) 38 h b) 24h c) 48h d) 16 h e) 20 h

Last Answer : Ans: C

The patient with which of the follow characteristics is considered high risk for the development of infective endocarditis? a) The patient who has complex cyanotic congenital malformations is at high risk for the development of infective endocarditis.

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Last Answer : a) The patient who has complex cyanotic congenital malformations is at high risk for the development of infective endocarditis.

Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

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Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine

Description : Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

Diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height are history and physical findings associated with agerelated changes of the a) joints. History and physical findings associated with age-related changes of the joints include diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height.

Description : Diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height are history and physical findings associated with agerelated changes of the a) joints. History and physical ... resolves with rest, crepitus, joint swelling/enlargement, and degenerative joint disease (osteoarthritis).

Last Answer : a) joints. History and physical findings associated with age-related changes of the joints include diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height.

A history of infection specifically caused by group A betahemolytic streptococci is associated with which of the following disorders? a) Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is also associated with varicella zoster virus, hepatitis B, and Epstein-Barr virus.

Description : A history of infection specifically caused by group A betahemolytic streptococci is associated with which of the following disorders? a) Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is ... chronic glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, multiple myeloma, and renal vein thrombosis.

Last Answer : a) Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is also associated with varicella zoster virus, hepatitis B, and Epstein-Barr virus.

Which of the following insults or abnormalities most commonly causes ischemic stroke? a) Cocaine use Cocaine is a potent vasoconstrictor and may result in a life-threatening reaction, even with the individual’s first unprescribed use of the drug.

Description : Which of the following insults or abnormalities most commonly causes ischemic stroke? a) Cocaine use Cocaine is a potent vasoconstrictor and may result in a life-threatening reaction ... strokes. d) Intracerebral aneurysm rupture Intracerebral aneurysm rupture is associated with hemorrhagic strokes.

Last Answer : a) Cocaine use Cocaine is a potent vasoconstrictor and may result in a life-threatening reaction, even with the individual’s first unprescribed use of the drug.

The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

Description : The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a ... . d) local arterial insufficiency. Local arterial insufficiency is characterized by marked localized pallor.

Last Answer : a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless. b) Increased wakefulness As the body weakens, the patient will sleep more and begin to detach from the environment. c) Increased eating For many patients, refusal of food is an indication that they are ready to die. d) Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Description : For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the ... Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Last Answer : a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless.

Ageism refers to a) Bias against older people based solely on chronological age Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration of functional capacity. b) fear of old age. Fear of aging and the inability of many to confront their own aging process may trigger ageist beliefs. c) loss of memory. Age-related loss of memory occurs more with short-term and recent memory. d) benign senescent forgetfulness. Benign senescent forgetfulness refers to the age-related loss of memory in the absence of a pathologic process.

Description : Ageism refers to a) Bias against older people based solely on chronological age Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration ... refers to the age-related loss of memory in the absence of a pathologic process.

Last Answer : a) Bias against older people based solely on chronological age Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration of functional capacity.

The aim of genomic medicine is a) improving predictions about individuals’ susceptibility to diseases Predictions regarding the time of their onset, their extent and eventual severity as well as which treatments or medications are likely to be most effective or harmful are the focus of genomic medicine. b) reproduction The focus of genomic medicine is broader than the reproduction of cells. c) cure of disease The focus of genomic medicine is broader than the cure of disease. d) cloning Genomic medicine is gene-based health care.

Description : The aim of genomic medicine is a) improving predictions about individuals' susceptibility to diseases Predictions regarding the time of their onset, their extent and eventual severity as well as which ... broader than the cure of disease. d) cloning Genomic medicine is gene-based health care.

Last Answer : a) improving predictions about individuals’ susceptibility to diseases Predictions regarding the time of their onset, their extent and eventual severity as well as which treatments or medications are likely to be most effective or harmful are the focus of genomic medicine.

Which of the following groups of individuals may stare at the floor during conversations as a sign of respect? a) Native Americans Some Native Americans stare at the floor during conversations, conveying respect and indicating that the listener is paying close attention to the speaker. b) Indo-Chinese The Indo-Chinese may consider direct eye contact impolite or aggressive. c) Arabs Arabs may consider direct eye contact impolite or aggressive. d) Asians Asians may consider direct eye contact impolite or aggressive.

Description : Which of the following groups of individuals may stare at the floor during conversations as a sign of respect? a) Native Americans Some Native Americans stare at the floor during conversations ... impolite or aggressive. d) Asians Asians may consider direct eye contact impolite or aggressive.

Last Answer : a) Native Americans Some Native Americans stare at the floor during conversations, conveying respect and indicating that the listener is paying close attention to the speaker.

Which of the following categories identifies the focus of community/public health nursing practice? a) Promoting and maintaining the health of populations and preventing and minimizing the progress of disease Although nursing interventions used by public health nurses might involve individuals, families, or small groups, the central focus remains promoting health and preventing disease in the entire community. b) Rehabilitation and restorative services Rehabilitation and restorative services are the focus of extended care facilities and home care nursing.

Description : Which of the following categories identifies the focus of community/public health nursing practice? a) Promoting and maintaining the health of populations and preventing and minimizing the progress of ... care delivery Hospice care delivery refers to the delivery of services to the terminally ill.

Last Answer : a) Promoting and maintaining the health of populations and preventing and minimizing the progress of disease Although nursing interventions used by public health nurses might involve individuals, ... , the central focus remains promoting health and preventing disease in the entire community.

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Which of the following diseases is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain? a) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease The disease causes severe dementia and myoclonus.

Description : Which of the following diseases is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain? a) ... disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia.

Last Answer : a) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease The disease causes severe dementia and myoclonus.

When the patient’s eosinophil count is 50-90% of blood leukocytes, the nurse interprets the result as a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell count, the patient is demonstrating severe eosinophilia.

Description : When the patient's eosinophil count is 50-90% of blood leukocytes, the nurse interprets the result as a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell ... d) normal. Eosinophils normally make up 1-3% of the total number of white blood cells.

Last Answer : a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell count, the patient is demonstrating severe eosinophilia.

Agammaglobulinemia is also known as a) Bruton’s disease. Bruton’s disease is a sex-linked disease that results in infants born with the disorder suffering severe infections soon after birth

Description : Agammaglobulinemia is also known as a) Bruton's disease. Bruton's disease is a sex-linked disease that results in infants born with the disorder suffering severe infections soon after ... of thrombocytopenia. d) Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) CVID is another term for hypogammaglobulinemia.

Last Answer : a) Bruton’s disease. Bruton’s disease is a sex-linked disease that results in infants born with the disorder suffering severe infections soon after birth