Which of the following would not be classified as a related-party transaction? a. Sales of merchandise between affiliated companies. b. An advance of one week's salary to an employeec. Loans or credit sales to the principal owner or client. d. Exchanges of equipment between two companies owned by the same person.

Which of the following would not be
classified as a related-party transaction?
a. Sales of merchandise between affiliated
companies.
b. An advance of one week's salary to
an employee.
c. Loans or credit sales to the principal
owner or client.
d. Exchanges of equipment between two
companies owned by the same person
by

1 Answer

Answer :

An advance of one week's salary to
an employee
by

Related questions

Which of the following would not fit the description of a related-party transaction? a. An unusually large sale of merchandise to the company's best and largest customer. b. Sales of merchandise between a parent company and its subsidiary. c. Exchanges of equipment between two companies owned by the same person. d. Loans to corporate officers at market rates of interest with a regular repayment schedule.

Description : Which of the following would not fit the description of a related-party transaction? a. An unusually large sale of merchandise to the company's best and largest customer. b. Sales of merchandise ... person. d. Loans to corporate officers at market rates of interest with a regular repayment schedule.

Last Answer : An unusually large sale of merchandise to the company's best and largest customer.

Which of the following might be considered a "red flag" indicating possible fraud in a large manufacturing company with several subsidiaries? a. A consistent record of above average return on investment for all subsidiaries b. The existence of a financial subsidiary c. Use of separate bank accounts for payrolls by each subsidiary d. Complex sales-transactions and transfers of funds between affiliated companies

Description : Which of the following might be considered a "red flag" indicating possible fraud in a large manufacturing company with several subsidiaries? a. A consistent record of above average ... payrolls by each subsidiary d. Complex sales-transactions and transfers of funds between affiliated companies

Last Answer : Complex sales-transactions and transfers of funds between affiliated companies

After discovering that a related-party transaction exists, the auditor should be aware that the a. Transaction is assumed to be outside the ordinary course of business. b. Substance of the transaction could be significantly different from its form. c. Adequacy of disclosure of the transaction is secondary to its legal form. d. Financial statements should recognize the legal form of the transaction rather

Description : After discovering that a related-party transaction exists, the auditor should be aware that the a. Transaction is assumed to be outside the ordinary course of business. b. Substance of the ... to its legal form. d. Financial statements should recognize the legal form of the transaction rather

Last Answer : Substance of the transaction could be significantly different from its form.

Which of the following is most likely to require special planning considerations related to asset valuation? a. Accelerated depreciation methods are used for amortizing the costs of factory equipment. b. The client has recently purchased an expensive copy machine. c. Assets costing less than P5,000 are expensed even when the expected life exceeds one year. d. Inventory is comprised of diamond rings.

Description : Which of the following is most likely to require special planning considerations related to asset valuation? a. Accelerated depreciation methods are used for amortizing the costs of factory equipment. b. ... even when the expected life exceeds one year. d. Inventory is comprised of diamond rings.

Last Answer : Inventory is comprised of diamond rings.

Transactions with related parties are important to the auditors because they will be disclosed in the financial statements if material. Generally accepted accounting principles would not require disclosure of a. Loans to officers during the year which had been repaid before the balance sheet date. b. The nature of the related-party relationship. c. A description of transactions, including peso amounts. d. The amounts due from and to related parties

Description : Transactions with related parties are important to the auditors because they will be disclosed in the financial statements if material. Generally accepted accounting principles would not require disclosure of ... transactions, including peso amounts. d. The amounts due from and to related parties

Last Answer : Loans to officers during the year which had been repaid before the balance sheet date

Working papers prepared by a CPA in connection with an audit engagement are owned by the CPA, subject to certain limitations. The rationale for this rule is to a. Protect the working papers from, being subpoenaed. b. Provide the CPA with evidence and documentation which may be helpful in the event of a lawsuit. c. Provide the basis for excluding admission of the working papers as evidence because of the privileged communication rule. d. Establish a continuity of relationship with the client whereby indiscriminate replacement of CPAs is discouraged.

Description : Working papers prepared by a CPA in connection with an audit engagement are owned by the CPA, subject to certain limitations. The rationale for this rule is to a. Protect the ... d. Establish a continuity of relationship with the client whereby indiscriminate replacement of CPAs is discouraged.

Last Answer : Provide the CPA with evidence and documentation which may be helpful in the event of a lawsuit.

The working papers prepared by a CPA in connection with an audit engagement are owned by the CPA, subject to certain limitations. The rationale for this rule is to a. Protect the working papers from being subpoenaed. b. Provide the basis for excluding admission of the working papers as evidence because of the privileged communication rulec. Provide the CPA with evidence and documentation which may be helpful in the event of a lawsuit. d. Establish a continuity of relationship with the client whereby indiscriminate replacement of CPAs is discouraged.

Description : The working papers prepared by a CPA in connection with an audit engagement are owned by the CPA, subject to certain limitations. The rationale for this rule is to a. Protect the ... d. Establish a continuity of relationship with the client whereby indiscriminate replacement of CPAs is discouraged

Last Answer : Provide the CPA with evidence and documentation which may be helpful in the event of a lawsuit

Which of the following does not constitute a practice of accountancy? a. A person holding out himself as one skilled in the knowledge, science and practice of accounting and as a qualified person to render professional services as a CPA to more than one clienb. A person representing his/her employer before government agencies on tax arid other accounting related matters. c. A person in educational institution teaching accounting, auditing, business law, taxation or other technically related subjects. d. A person is appointed as a marketing director of a government owned and controlled corporation.t

Description : Which of the following does not constitute a practice of accountancy? a. A person holding out himself as one skilled in the knowledge, science and practice of accounting and as a qualified person ... d. A person is appointed as a marketing director of a government owned and controlled corporation.

Last Answer : A person is appointed as a marketing director of a government owned and controlled corporation.

Which fundamental principle is seriously threatened by an engagement that is compensated based on the net proceeds on loans received by the client from a commercial bank? a. Integrity b. Objectivity c. Professional behavior d. Confidentiality

Description : Which fundamental principle is seriously threatened by an engagement that is compensated based on the net proceeds on loans received by the client from a commercial bank? a. Integrity b. Objectivity c. Professional behavior d. Confidentiality

Last Answer : Objectivity

Under the Code of Ethics, a CPA may not: a. Perform bookkeeping services for an audit client. b. Perform advisory services for an audit client. c. Have any direct financial interest in a client during the period covered by the financial statements. d. Having any joint, closely held investments with a principal stockholder of an audit client during the period of audit engagement which is not material in relation to his ne

Description : Under the Code of Ethics, a CPA may not: a. Perform bookkeeping services for an audit client. b. Perform advisory services for an audit client. c. Have any direct financial interest in a client ... of an audit client during the period of audit engagement which is not material in relation to his ne

Last Answer : Have any direct financial interest in a client during the period covered by the financial statements.

If a customer agrees to retain merchandise that is defective because the seller is willing to reduce the selling price, this transaction is known as a sales a. discount. b. return. c. contra asset. d. allowance.

Description : If a customer agrees to retain merchandise that is defective because the seller is willing to reduce the selling price, this transaction is known as a sales a. discount. b. return. c. contra asset. d. allowance.

Last Answer : b. return.

___________ is basically charged when a person uses a credit card to obtain cash. A. Early Repayment Charge B. Redemption Fee C. Transaction Fee D. Cash Advance Fee

Description : ___________ is basically charged when a person uses a credit card to obtain cash. A. Early Repayment Charge B. Redemption Fee C. Transaction Fee D. Cash Advance Fee

Last Answer : D. Cash Advance Fee Explanation: A cash advance fee is a charge that a credit card issuer charges a customer for accessing the cash credit line on his or her account, either through an ATM, convenience check or at a bank‘s teller window.

A time budget is an estimate of the total hours an audit is expected to take. The following are among the factors to be considered in developing this budget, except a. Client's size as indicated by its gross assets, sales, number of employees. b. Location of client facilities. c. The competence and experience of available staff. d. Whether the audit is performed during the interim or at year-end.

Description : A time budget is an estimate of the total hours an audit is expected to take. The following are among the factors to be considered in developing this budget, except a. Client's size as indicated ... experience of available staff. d. Whether the audit is performed during the interim or at year-end.

Last Answer : Whether the audit is performed during the interim or at year-end.

On a classified balance sheet, merchandise inventory is classified as a. an intangible asset. b. property, plant, and equipment. c. a current asset. d. a long-term investment.

Description : On a classified balance sheet, merchandise inventory is classified as a. an intangible asset. b. property, plant, and equipment. c. a current asset. d. a long-term investment.

Last Answer : c. a current asset.

Anyone identified to the auditor by name prior to the audit who is to be the principal recipient of the auditor's report is a a. Primary beneficiary. b. Third party. c. Foreseen beneficiary. d. Secondary beneficiary

Description : Anyone identified to the auditor by name prior to the audit who is to be the principal recipient of the auditor's report is a a. Primary beneficiary. b. Third party. c. Foreseen beneficiary. d. Secondary beneficiary

Last Answer : Primary beneficiary

The auditor's defense of contributory negligence is most likely to prevail when a. Third party injury has been minimal. b. The client is privately held as contrasted with a public company. c. Undetected errors have resulted in materially misleading financial statements. d. The auditor fails to detect fraud resulting from management override of the control structure

Description : The auditor's defense of contributory negligence is most likely to prevail when a. Third party injury has been minimal. b. The client is privately held as contrasted with a public company ... statements. d. The auditor fails to detect fraud resulting from management override of the control structure

Last Answer : The auditor fails to detect fraud resulting from management override of the control structure

The auditor's defense of contributory negligence is most likely to prevail when a. Third party injury has been minimal. b. The client is privately held as contrasted with a public company. c. Undetected errors have resulted in materially misleading financial statements. d. The auditor fails to detect fraud resulting from management override of the control structure.

Description : The auditor's defense of contributory negligence is most likely to prevail when a. Third party injury has been minimal. b. The client is privately held as contrasted with a public company. ... . d. The auditor fails to detect fraud resulting from management override of the control structure.

Last Answer : The auditor fails to detect fraud resulting from management override of the control structure.

To be independent, the auditor: a. Must be impartial when dealing with the client. b. Cannot place any reliance on the client's verbal and written assertions. c. Is responsible only to third-party users of the financial statements. d. Cannot perform any consulting servicesfor an audit client.

Description : To be independent, the auditor: a. Must be impartial when dealing with the client. b. Cannot place any reliance on the client's verbal and written assertions. c. Is responsible only to third-party users of the financial statements. d. Cannot perform any consulting servicesfor an audit client.

Last Answer : Must be impartial when dealing with the client

Which of the following statements concerning a CPA's disclosure of confidential client information is ordinarily correct? a. Disclosure should not be made even if such disclosure will protect the CPA's professional interests in legal proceedings. b. Disclosure should be made only if there is a legal, or professional duty to make the disclosure. c. Disclosure may be made to any party on consent of the client. d. Disclosure may be made to any government agency without subpoena.

Description : Which of the following statements concerning a CPA's disclosure of confidential client information is ordinarily correct? a. Disclosure should not be made even if such disclosure will protect the CPA's ... consent of the client. d. Disclosure may be made to any government agency without subpoena.

Last Answer : Disclosure may be made to any party on consent of the client.

Which of the following procedures would an auditor be most likely to perform in planning a financial statement audit? a. Reviewing investment transactions of the audit period to determine whether related parties were created. b. Performing analytical procedures to identify areas that may represent specific risks. c. Obtaining a written representation letter from the client to emphasize management's responsibilities. d. Reading the minutes of stockholder and director meetings to discover whether any unusual transactions have occurred.

Description : Which of the following procedures would an auditor be most likely to perform in planning a financial statement audit? a. Reviewing investment transactions of the audit period to determine ... the minutes of stockholder and director meetings to discover whether any unusual transactions have occurred.

Last Answer : Performing analytical procedures to identify areas that may represent specific risks.

What is the most likely course of action that will be taken by an auditor in assessing management integrity? a. Tour the client premises. b. Research the prospective client’s related parties. c. Research the background and histories of officers d. Review the minutes of the board of directors

Description : What is the most likely course of action that will be taken by an auditor in assessing management integrity? a. Tour the client premises. b. Research the prospective client’s related parties. c. Research the background and histories of officers d. Review the minutes of the board of directors

Last Answer : Research the background and histories of officers

On October 4, 2008, Terry Corporation had credit sales transactions of $2,800 from merchandise having cost $1,900. The entries to record the day's credit transactions include a a. debit of $2,800 to Merchandise Inventory. b. credit of $2,800 to Sales. c. debit of $1,900 to Merchandise Inventory. d. credit of $1,900 to Cost of Goods Sold.

Description : On October 4, 2008, Terry Corporation had credit sales transactions of $2,800 from merchandise having cost $1,900. The entries to record the day's credit transactions include a a. debit of $2,800 to ... c. debit of $1,900 to Merchandise Inventory. d. credit of $1,900 to Cost of Goods Sold.

Last Answer : b. credit of $2,800 to Sales.

When a seller grants credit for returned goods, the account that is credited is a. Sales. b. Sales Returns and Allowances. c. Merchandise Inventory. d. Accounts Receivable.

Description : When a seller grants credit for returned goods, the account that is credited is a. Sales. b. Sales Returns and Allowances. c. Merchandise Inventory. d. Accounts Receivable.

Last Answer : d. Accounts Receivable.

A Sales Returns and Allowances account is not debited if a customer a. returns defective merchandise. b. receives a credit for merchandise of inferior quality. c. utilizes a prompt payment incentive.

Description : A Sales Returns and Allowances account is not debited if a customer a. returns defective merchandise. b. receives a credit for merchandise of inferior quality. c. utilizes a prompt payment incentive.

Last Answer : c. utilizes a prompt payment incentive.

The Sales Returns and Allowances account does not provide information to management about a. possible inferior merchandise. b. the percentage of credit sales versus cash sales. c. inefficiencies in filling orders. d. errors in overbilling customers.

Description : The Sales Returns and Allowances account does not provide information to management about a. possible inferior merchandise. b. the percentage of credit sales versus cash sales. c. inefficiencies in filling orders. d. errors in overbilling customers.

Last Answer : b. the percentage of credit sales versus cash sales.

The journal entry to record a return of merchandise purchased on account under a perpetual inventory system would credit a. Accounts Payable. b. Purchase Returns and Allowances. c. Sales. d. Merchandise Inventory.

Description : The journal entry to record a return of merchandise purchased on account under a perpetual inventory system would credit a. Accounts Payable. b. Purchase Returns and Allowances. c. Sales. d. Merchandise Inventory.

Last Answer : d. Merchandise Inventory.

11) The only service that both rack jobbers and cash -and -carry wholesalers perform is A)personal sales calls on customers. B)providing credit to customers. C)delivering merchandise to customers. D)providing advice to customers. E)physical possession of merchandise.

Description : 11) The only service that both rack jobbers and cash -and -carry wholesalers perform is A)personal sales calls on customers. B)providing credit to customers. C)delivering merchandise to customers. D)providing advice to customers. E)physical possession of merchandise.

Last Answer : E)physical possession of merchandise.

From the following deduction , which deduction from subsistence allowance is needed prior consent from suspended employee a. Deduction related with income tax b. Repayment of loans and advance taken from government c. Deduction related with PLI premium

Description : From the following deduction , which deduction from subsistence allowance is needed prior consent from suspended employee a. Deduction related with income tax b. Repayment of loans and advance taken from government c. Deduction related with PLI premium

Last Answer : c. Deduction related with PLI premium

When you first registered to vote, how did you choose which party to be affiliated with?

Description : When you first registered to vote, how did you choose which party to be affiliated with?

Last Answer : I registered at age 18 - the day after my birthday. This would have been around 1972. I registered as a Democrat. My whole family (middle-class Jews in suburbia), thought that Nixon was an asshole ... to vote for the extremist so that the democrat would have a better chance of winning. It worked.

To which political party was Ronald Reagan affiliated?

Description : To which political party was Ronald Reagan affiliated?

Last Answer : For a while, Mr. Reagan was a centrist Democrat; but eventually, around 1962, his political views changed. He decided to become a conservative Republican, and he ran for president as a Republican.

The term professional accountant in public practice includes the following, except: a. A sole proprietor providing professional services to a client. b. Each partner or person occupying a position similar to that of a partner staff in a practice providing professional services to a client. c. Professional accountants employed in the public sector having managerial responsibilities. d. A firm of professional accountants in public practice

Description : The term professional accountant in public practice includes the following, except: a. A sole proprietor providing professional services to a client. b. Each partner or person occupying a ... public sector having managerial responsibilities. d. A firm of professional accountants in public practice

Last Answer : Professional accountants employed in the public sector having managerial responsibilities

The most likely explanation why the auditor’s examination cannot reasonably be expected to bring all illegal acts by the client to the auditor’s attention is that a. Illegal acts are perpetrated by management override of internal control. b. Illegal acts by clients often relate to operating aspects rather than accounting aspects. c. The client’s internal control may be so strong that the auditor performs only minimal substantive testing. d. Illegal acts may be perpetrated by the only person in the client’s organization

Description : The most likely explanation why the auditor's examination cannot reasonably be expected to bring all illegal acts by the client to the auditor's attention is that a. Illegal acts are perpetrated by ... testing. d. Illegal acts may be perpetrated by the only person in the client's organization

Last Answer : Illegal acts by clients often relate to operating aspects rather than accounting aspects

Existing accountant, as defined in the Code of Ethics, means a. A professional accountant employed in industry, commerce, the public sector or education. b. Those persons who hold a valid certificate issued by the Board of Accountancy. c. A professional accountant in public practice currently holding an audit appointment or carrying out accounting, taxation, consulting or similar professional services for a client. d. A sole proprietor, or each partner or person occupying a position similar to that of a partner and each staff in a practice providing professional services

Description : Existing accountant, as defined in the Code of Ethics, means a. A professional accountant employed in industry, commerce, the public sector or education. b. Those persons who hold a valid ... a position similar to that of a partner and each staff in a practice providing professional services

Last Answer : A professional accountant in public practice currently holding an audit appointment or carrying out accounting, taxation, consulting or similar professional services for a client.

During a merger and acquisition transaction, the ability to find and use good comparable data for a valuation is relatively ____________. a) easy because each successful company within an industry uses the same ratios b) easy because public stock price fluctuation is not sufficient or erratic enough to make a difference c) difficult because book value is adjusted in small companies as FIFO is the method of choice and in public companies’ book value is static due to LIFO d) difficult because size differential, management depth, product diversity and access to lines of credit seldom match the company being valued

Description : During a merger and acquisition transaction, the ability to find and use good comparable data for a valuation is relatively ____________. a) easy because each successful company within an industry ... depth, product diversity and access to lines of credit seldom match the company being valued

Last Answer : d) difficult because size differential, management depth, product diversity and access to lines of credit seldom match the company being valued

The type of transactions that ordinarily have a high inherent risk because they involve management judgments or assumptions are referred to as a. Estimation transactions. b. Nonroutine transactions. c. Related-party transactions. d. Routine transactions

Description : The type of transactions that ordinarily have a high inherent risk because they involve management judgments or assumptions are referred to as a. Estimation transactions. b. Nonroutine transactions. c. Related-party transactions. d. Routine transactions

Last Answer : Estimation transactions

Most auditors assess inherent risk as high for related parties and related-party transactions because a. Of the accounting disclosure requirement. b. Of the lack of independence between the parties. c. Both a and b. d. It is required by generally accepted accounting principles

Description : Most auditors assess inherent risk as high for related parties and related-party transactions because a. Of the accounting disclosure requirement. b. Of the lack of independence between the parties. c. Both a and b. d. It is required by generally accepted accounting principles

Last Answer : Both a and b

Which of the following factors most likely would influence an auditor’s determination of the auditability of an entity’s financial statements? a. The complexity of the accounting system. b. The existence of related-party transactions. c. The adequacy of the accounting records. d. The operating effectiveness of control procedures.

Description : Which of the following factors most likely would influence an auditor's determination of the auditability of an entity's financial statements? a. The complexity of the accounting system. b. The ... c. The adequacy of the accounting records. d. The operating effectiveness of control procedures.

Last Answer : The adequacy of the accounting records.

Which of the following factors would most likely cause a CPA to decide not to accept a new audit engagement? a. The CPA’s lack of understanding of the prospective client’s internal auditor’s computer-assisted audit techniques. b. Management’s disregard of its responsibility to maintain an adequate internal control environment. c. The CPA’s inability to determine whether related-party transactions were consummated on terms equivalent to arm’s-length transactions. d. Management’s refusal to permit the CPA to perform substantive tests before the year-end.

Description : Which of the following factors would most likely cause a CPA to decide not to accept a new audit engagement? a. The CPA's lack of understanding of the prospective client's internal auditor's ... . d. Management's refusal to permit the CPA to perform substantive tests before the year-end.

Last Answer : Management’s disregard of its responsibility to maintain an adequate internal control environment

Which of the following is an element of "directing an audit assistant" objective? a. Identifying in advance the staffing requirements of a particular audit engagement. b. Resolving any differences in professional judgment between audit personnel. c. Resolution of differences in audit findings. d. Informing assistants of their responsibilities and the objectives of the procedures they are to perform

Description : Which of the following is an element of "directing an audit assistant" objective? a. Identifying in advance the staffing requirements of a particular audit engagement. b. Resolving any ... . Informing assistants of their responsibilities and the objectives of the procedures they are to perform

Last Answer : Informing assistants of their responsibilities and the objectives of the procedures they are to perform

The objective of quality control mandates that a public accounting firm should establish policies and procedures for professional development which provide reasonable assurance that all entry-level personnel a. Prepare working papers which are standardized in form and content. b. Will advance within the organization. c. Develop specialties in specific areas of public accounting. d. Have the knowledge required to enable them to fulfill responsibilities assigned

Description : The objective of quality control mandates that a public accounting firm should establish policies and procedures for professional development which provide reasonable assurance that all entry-level ... accounting. d. Have the knowledge required to enable them to fulfill responsibilities assigned

Last Answer : Have the knowledge required to enable them to fulfill responsibilities assigned

Which one of the following contingent fee is allowed? a. All services performed by a CPA film. b. Non-attestation services. c. Non-attestation services, unless the CPA firm was also performing attestation services for the same client. d. Attestation services

Description : Which one of the following contingent fee is allowed? a. All services performed by a CPA film. b. Non-attestation services. c. Non-attestation services, unless the CPA firm was also performing attestation services for the same client. d. Attestation services

Last Answer : Non-attestation services, unless the CPA firm was also performing attestation services for the same client

Which one of the following contingent fee is allowed? a. All services performed by a CPA firm. b. Non-attestation services. c. Non-attestation services, unless the CPA firm was also performing attestation services for the same client. d. Attestation services

Description : Which one of the following contingent fee is allowed? a. All services performed by a CPA firm. b. Non-attestation services. c. Non-attestation services, unless the CPA firm was also performing attestation services for the same client. d. Attestation services

Last Answer : Non-attestation services, unless the CPA firm was also performing attestation services for the same client.

With respect to the concept of materiality, which one of the following statements is correct? a. Materiality is a matter of professional judgment. b. Materiality is determined by reference to AASC's guidelines. c. Materiality depends on the nature of a transaction rather than the peso amount of the transaction. d. Materiality depends only on the peso amount of an item relative to other items in the financial statements

Description : With respect to the concept of materiality, which one of the following statements is correct? a. Materiality is a matter of professional judgment. b. Materiality is determined by reference to AASC's ... depends only on the peso amount of an item relative to other items in the financial statements

Last Answer : Materiality is a matter of professional judgment

Which of the following would not usually be included in the minutes of the board of directors and/or stockholders? a. Declaration of dividends. b. Authorization of long-term loans. c. Authorization of individuals to sign checks. d. The duties and powers of the corporate officers.

Description : Which of the following would not usually be included in the minutes of the board of directors and/or stockholders? a. Declaration of dividends. b. Authorization of long-term loans. c. Authorization of individuals to sign checks. d. The duties and powers of the corporate officers.

Last Answer : The duties and powers of the corporate officers.

The principal issue to be resolved in cases involving alleged negligence is usually a. The amount of the damages suffered by the users of the financial statements. b. Whether to impose punitive damages on defendant. c. The level of care required to be exercised. d. Whether defendant was involved in fraud.

Description : The principal issue to be resolved in cases involving alleged negligence is usually a. The amount of the damages suffered by the users of the financial statements. b. Whether to impose punitive damages on ... c. The level of care required to be exercised. d. Whether defendant was involved in fraud.

Last Answer : The level of care required to be exercised

The principal issue to be resolved in cases involving alleged negligence is usually a. The amount of the damages suffered by the users of the financial statements. b. Whether to impose punitive damages on defendant. c. The level of care required to be exercised. d. Whether defendant was involved in fraud.

Description : The principal issue to be resolved in cases involving alleged negligence is usually a. The amount of the damages suffered by the users of the financial statements. b. Whether to impose punitive damages on ... c. The level of care required to be exercised. d. Whether defendant was involved in fraud.

Last Answer : The level of care required to be exercised.

A principal purpose of a letter of representation from management is to a. Remind management of its primary responsibility for financial statements. b. Serve as an introduction to company personnel and an authorization to examine the records. c. Discharge the auditor from legal liability for his examination. d. Confirm in writing management's approval of limitations on the scope of the audit

Description : A principal purpose of a letter of representation from management is to a. Remind management of its primary responsibility for financial statements. b. Serve as an introduction to company personnel and ... . d. Confirm in writing management's approval of limitations on the scope of the audit

Last Answer : Remind management of its primary responsibility for financial statements.

A principal purpose of a letter of representation from management is to a. Serve as an introduction to company personnel and an authorization to examine the records. b. Discharge the auditor from legal liability for his examination. c. Confirm in writing management's approval of limitations on the scope of the audit. d. Remind management of its primary responsibility for financial statements.

Description : A principal purpose of a letter of representation from management is to a. Serve as an introduction to company personnel and an authorization to examine the records. b. Discharge the auditor ... the scope of the audit. d. Remind management of its primary responsibility for financial statements.

Last Answer : Remind management of its primary responsibility for financial statements.