Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output and blood pressure: A. Halothane B. Fentanyl C. Ketamine D. Diazepam

Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output
and blood pressure:
A. Halothane
B. Fentanyl
C. Ketamine
D. Diazepam
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Ketamine
by

Related questions

Malignant hyperthermia is a rare complication of use of the following anaesthetic: A. Ketamine B. Thiopentone sodium C. Halothane D. Ether

Description : Malignant hyperthermia is a rare complication of use of the following anaesthetic: A. Ketamine B. Thiopentone sodium C. Halothane D. Ether

Last Answer : D. Ether

Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors: A. Thiopentone B. Halothane C. Desflurane D. Ketamine

Description : Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors: A. Thiopentone B. Halothane C. Desflurane D. Ketamine

Last Answer : D. Ketamine

Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV). b) Tranquilizer Examples of tranquilizers include midazolam (Versed) and diazepam (Valium). c) Opioid Opioids include morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Description : Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration ... morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Last Answer : a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV).

Select the general anaesthetic that is particularly suitable for outpatient surgery because of quick recovery and short-lived post-anaesthetic psychomotor impairment: A. Ether B. Halothane C. Enflurane D. Desflurane

Description : Select the general anaesthetic that is particularly suitable for outpatient surgery because of quick recovery and short-lived post-anaesthetic psychomotor impairment: A. Ether B. Halothane C. Enflurane D. Desflurane

Last Answer : D. Desflurane

Select the general anaesthetic having the most marked uterine relaxant action: A. Propofol B. Halothane C. Nitrous oxide D. Ether

Description : Select the general anaesthetic having the most marked uterine relaxant action: A. Propofol B. Halothane C. Nitrous oxide D. Ether

Last Answer : B. Halothane

Select the inhalational general anaesthetic which is metabolized in the body to a significant extent: A. Sevoflurane B. Isoflurane C. Ether D. Halothane

Description : Select the inhalational general anaesthetic which is metabolized in the body to a significant extent: A. Sevoflurane B. Isoflurane C. Ether D. Halothane

Last Answer : D. Halothane

The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are: A. Thiopentone sodium B. Fentanyl + droperidol C. Ketamine D. All of the above

Description : The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are: A. Thiopentone sodium B. Fentanyl + droperidol C. Ketamine D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Thiopentone sodium

The general anaesthetic having significant cardiodepressant property is: A. Halothane B. Enflurane C. Ether D. Nitrous oxide

Description : The general anaesthetic having significant cardiodepressant property is: A. Halothane B. Enflurane C. Ether D. Nitrous oxide

Last Answer : A. Halothane

s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating

Description : s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating

Last Answer : A. Very good analgesic action

The following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action: A. Ether B. Nitrous oxide C. Halothane D. Isoflurane

Description : The following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action: A. Ether B. Nitrous oxide C. Halothane D. Isoflurane

Last Answer : B. Nitrous oxide

The following anaesthetic can be used by the open drop method: A. Ether B. Desflurane C. Halothane D. Isoflurane

Description : The following anaesthetic can be used by the open drop method: A. Ether B. Desflurane C. Halothane D. Isoflurane

Last Answer : A. Ether

Residual CNS depression is least marked after the use of the following anaesthetic: A. Diazepam B. Thiopentone sodium C. Lorazepam D. Propofo

Description : Residual CNS depression is least marked after the use of the following anaesthetic: A. Diazepam B. Thiopentone sodium C. Lorazepam D. Propofo

Last Answer : D. Propofol

Dissociative anaesthesia’ is produced by: A. Ketamine B. Fentanyl C. Propofol D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Dissociative anaesthesia’ is produced by: A. Ketamine B. Fentanyl C. Propofol D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : Ketamine is the preferred anaesthetic for the following except: A. Hypertensives B. Trauma cases who have bled significantly C. Burn dressing D. Short operations on asthmatics

Diazepam is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) epilepsy B. Tetanus C. Febrile convulsions D. Cardiac catheterization

Description : Diazepam is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) epilepsy B. Tetanus C. Febrile convulsions D. Cardiac catheterization

Last Answer : A. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) epilepsy

The following drug increases cardiac output in congestive heart failure without having any direct myocardial action: A. Captopril B. Digoxin C. Amrinone D. Dobutamine

Description : The following drug increases cardiac output in congestive heart failure without having any direct myocardial action: A. Captopril B. Digoxin C. Amrinone D. Dobutamine

Last Answer : A. Captopril

Select the drug which should not be used to treat neurotic anxiety and tension syndromes despite having antianxiety action: A. Buspirone B. Chlorpromazine C. Diazepam D. Alprazolam

Description : Select the drug which should not be used to treat neurotic anxiety and tension syndromes despite having antianxiety action: A. Buspirone B. Chlorpromazine C. Diazepam D. Alprazolam

Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine

Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effects of benzodiazepines as well as barbiturates D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Select the drug that antagonises diazepam action noncompetitively: A. Adenosine B. Flumazenil C. Bicuculline D. Valproic acid

Description : Select the drug that antagonises diazepam action noncompetitively: A. Adenosine B. Flumazenil C. Bicuculline D. Valproic acid

Last Answer : C. Bicuculline

Select the correct statement about nitrous oxide: A. It irritates the respiratory mucosa B. It has poor analgesic action C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics D. It frequently induces post anaesthetic nausea and retching

Description : Select the correct statement about nitrous oxide: A. It irritates the respiratory mucosa B. It has poor analgesic action C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics D. It frequently induces post anaesthetic nausea and retching

Last Answer : C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics

Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Description : Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors reduce the following haemodynamic parameters in congestive heart failure except: A. Systemic vascular resistance B. Right atrial pressure C. Cardiac output D. Heart rate × pressure product

Description : Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors reduce the following haemodynamic parameters in congestive heart failure except: A. Systemic vascular resistance B. Right atrial pressure C. Cardiac output D. Heart rate × pressure product

Last Answer : C. Cardiac output

The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Description : The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Last Answer : D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

Which of the following is seen at low (analgesic) doses of aspirin: A. Respiratory stimulation B. Increased occult blood loss in stools C. Increased cardiac output D. Hyperglycaemia

Description :  Which of the following is seen at low (analgesic) doses of aspirin: A. Respiratory stimulation B. Increased occult blood loss in stools C. Increased cardiac output D. Hyperglycaemia

Last Answer : B. Increased occult blood loss in stools

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

Which of the following is an agonist-antagonist type of opioid analgesic: A. Pethidine B. Pentazocine C. Fentanyl D. Buprenorphine

Description : Which of the following is an agonist-antagonist type of opioid analgesic: A. Pethidine B. Pentazocine C. Fentanyl D. Buprenorphine

Last Answer : B. Pentazocine

Indicate the opioid analgesic that is used as transdermal patch for chronic and cancer pain: A. Morphine B. Pentazocine C. Fentanyl D. Tramadol

Description : Indicate the opioid analgesic that is used as transdermal patch for chronic and cancer pain: A. Morphine B. Pentazocine C. Fentanyl D. Tramadol

Last Answer : The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above

The following opioid is more potent than morphine: A. Pethidine B. Fentanyl C. Dextropropoxyphene D. Tramadol

Description : The following opioid is more potent than morphine: A. Pethidine B. Fentanyl C. Dextropropoxyphene D. Tramadol

Last Answer : B. Fentanyl

Intravenous fentanyl is used in balanced anaesthesia to afford: A. Relaxation of chest muscles B. Analgesia C. Unconsciousness D. Suppression of gastric acid secretion

Description : Intravenous fentanyl is used in balanced anaesthesia to afford: A. Relaxation of chest muscles B. Analgesia C. Unconsciousness D. Suppression of gastric acid secretion

Last Answer : B. Analgesia

The following is true of sevoflurane except: A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly B. It is nonpungent C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment D. It is less potent than halothane

Description : The following is true of sevoflurane except: A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly B. It is nonpungent C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment D. It is less potent than halothane

Last Answer : C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment

Second gas effect’ is exerted by the following gas when coadministered with halothane: A. Nitrous oxide B. Cyclopropane C. Nitrogen D. Helium

Description : Second gas effect’ is exerted by the following gas when coadministered with halothane: A. Nitrous oxide B. Cyclopropane C. Nitrogen D. Helium

Last Answer : A. Nitrous oxide

if you suspect atrial flutter : Consider digoxin if not already in use because it frequently increases the conduction ratio and decreases the ventricular rate. , Avoid adrenergic and atropinic agents during sedation or anesthesia for cardioversion. Ketamine is relatively contraindicatedthe cause of premature ventricular contraction? decrease O2 supply to the muscle decrease blood supply to the muscle the heart trying to beat fast ______________________________

Description : if you suspect atrial flutter : Consider digoxin if not already in use because it frequently increases the conduction ratio and decreases the ventricular rate. , Avoid adrenergic and ... to the muscle decrease blood supply to the muscle the heart trying to beat fast ______________________________

Last Answer : decrease O2 supply to the muscle

Which of the following vasoactive drugs used in treating shock results in reduced preload and afterload, reducing oxygen demand of the heart? a) Nitroprusside (Nipride) A disadvantage of nitroprusside is that it causes hypotension. b) Dopamine (Intropin) Dopamine improves contractility, increases stroke volume, and increases cardiac output. c) Epinephrine (adrenaline) Epinephrine improves contractility, increases stroke volume, and increases cardiac output. d) Methoxamine (Vasoxyl) Methoxamine increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction.

Description : Which of the following vasoactive drugs used in treating shock results in reduced preload and afterload, reducing oxygen demand of the heart? a) Nitroprusside (Nipride) A disadvantage ... increases cardiac output. d) Methoxamine (Vasoxyl) Methoxamine increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction.

Last Answer : a) Nitroprusside (Nipride) A disadvantage of nitroprusside is that it causes hypotension.

Which sensation is blocked first by low concentrations of a local anaesthetic: A. Pain B. Temperature C. Touch D. Deep pressure

Description : Which sensation is blocked first by low concentrations of a local anaesthetic: A. Pain B. Temperature C. Touch D. Deep pressure

Last Answer : A. Pain

'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after use of nitrous oxide because it: A. Is a respiratory depressant B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration C. Is a very potent anaesthetic D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the tissues

Description : 'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after use of nitrous oxide because it: A. Is a respiratory depressant B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration C. Is a very potent anaesthetic D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the tissues

Last Answer : B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration

The following factor delays induction with an inhaled general anaesthetic: A. Alveolar perfusion-ventilation mismatch B. Hyperventilation C. Low blood:gas partition coefficient of the anaesthetic D. Inclusion of 5% carbon dioxide in the inhaled gas mixture

Description : The following factor delays induction with an inhaled general anaesthetic: A. Alveolar perfusion-ventilation mismatch B. Hyperventilation C. Low blood:gas partition coefficient of the anaesthetic D. Inclusion of 5% carbon dioxide in the inhaled gas mixture

Last Answer : A. Alveolar perfusion-ventilation mismatch

Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood concentrations of the local anaesthetic are lower after epidural anaesthesia D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia

Select the drug that can help restore cardiac performance as well as prolong survival in CHF patients: A. Spironolactone B. Furosemide C. Dobutamine D. Metoprolol

Description : Select the drug that can help restore cardiac performance as well as prolong survival in CHF patients: A. Spironolactone B. Furosemide C. Dobutamine D. Metoprolol

Last Answer : D. Metoprolol

Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme: A. Chlorpheniramine B. Promethazine C. Astemizole D. Loratadine

Description : Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme: A. Chlorpheniramine B. Promethazine C. Astemizole D. Loratadine

Last Answer : C. Astemizole

n a failing heart therapeutic dose of digoxin has no effect on the following parameter: A. Cardiac output B. Heart rate C. Tone of ventricular fibres D. Cardiac vagal tone

Description : n a failing heart therapeutic dose of digoxin has no effect on the following parameter: A. Cardiac output B. Heart rate C. Tone of ventricular fibres D. Cardiac vagal tone

Last Answer : C. Tone of ventricular fibres

In the intact animal H2 receptor antagonists potentiate the following action of histamine: A. Cardiac stimulation B. Fall in blood pressure C. Uterine relaxation D. Bronchospasm

Description : In the intact animal H2 receptor antagonists potentiate the following action of histamine: A. Cardiac stimulation B. Fall in blood pressure C. Uterine relaxation D. Bronchospasm

Last Answer : D. Bronchospasm

Actions of bradykinin include the following except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Cardiac depression C. Increase in capillary permeability D. Bronchoconstriction

Description : Actions of bradykinin include the following except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Cardiac depression C. Increase in capillary permeability D. Bronchoconstriction

Last Answer : B. Cardiac depression

Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Description : Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Last Answer : A. Direct cardiac depression

Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements

Description : Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements

Last Answer : D. Abnormal movements

Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin therapy prevents granulomatous lesions and cardiac complications of acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Description : Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin ... acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Last Answer : B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid

Drugs effective in bipolar illness include the following except: A. Olanzapine B. Diazepam C. Sodium valproate D. Lamotrigine

Description : Drugs effective in bipolar illness include the following except: A. Olanzapine B. Diazepam C. Sodium valproate D. Lamotrigine

Last Answer : B. Diazepam

Diabetic and other types of neuropathic pain often responds to: A. Chlorpromazine B. Diazepam C. Imipramine D. Lithium

Description : Diabetic and other types of neuropathic pain often responds to: A. Chlorpromazine B. Diazepam C. Imipramine D. Lithium

Last Answer : C. Imipramine

The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc

Description : The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc

Last Answer : C. Both have antianxiety action

The following drug is not likely to produce dependence: A. Diazepam B. Chlorpromazine C. Pethidine D. Methadone

Description : The following drug is not likely to produce dependence: A. Diazepam B. Chlorpromazine C. Pethidine D. Methadone

Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine