Advantages of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) include: A. Immediate medication delivery. B. Less contact with nursing staff. C. Rapid onset of analgesia. D. Patient control over pain medication. E. All of the above.

Advantages of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) include: A.  Immediate medication delivery. B.  Less contact with nursing staff. C.  Rapid onset of analgesia. D.  Patient control over pain medication. E.  All of the above.
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Answer: ACD  DISCUSSION: Advantages of PCA are immediate medication delivery, rapid onset of analgesia, and patient control over pain medication. Disadvantages of PCA are less contact with nursing staff and patients' fears that they could inadvertently administer an overdose or possibly become addicted to the opioid
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Advantages of epidural analgesia include: A. Earlier mobilization after surgery. B. Earlier return of bowel function. C. Shorter hospitalizations. D. Decreased stress response to surgery. E. All of the above.

Description : Advantages of epidural analgesia include: A. Earlier mobilization after surgery. B. Earlier return of bowel function. C. Shorter hospitalizations. D. Decreased stress response to surgery. E. All of the above.

Last Answer : Answer: E DISCUSSION: Epidural analgesia include excellent pain relief, decreased sedation with more rapid recovery to presurgical levels of consciousness, earlier mobilization after surgery ... , shorter hospitalizations, and decreased morbidity have all been associated with epidural analgesia

Useful steps to optimize systemic oxygen delivery include: a. Maintaining mean arterial blood pressure between 50 and 90 mm Hg b. Optimizing PEEP levels by monitoring mixed venous saturation c. Turning the patient prone d. Sedation or paralysis

Description : Useful steps to optimize systemic oxygen delivery include: a. Maintaining mean arterial blood pressure between 50 and 90 mm Hg b. Optimizing PEEP levels by monitoring mixed venous saturation c. Turning the patient prone d. Sedation or paralysis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Optimizing systemic oxygen delivery in relationship to oxygen requirement is the primary goal of management. Improving oxygenation of the blood itself by ... sedation, and establishing muscular paralysis decrease oxygen consumption, and decrease the need for oxygen delivery

Which of the following statements about head injury and concomitant hyponatremia are true? A. There are no primary alterations in cardiovascular signs. B. Signs of increased intracranial pressure may be masked by the hyponatremia. C. Oliguric renal failure is an unlikely complication. D. Rapid correction of the hyponatremia may prevent central pontine injury. E. This patient is best treated by restriction of water intake.

Description : Which of the following statements about head injury and concomitant hyponatremia are true? A. There are no primary alterations in cardiovascular signs. B. Signs of increased intracranial pressure may be ... central pontine injury. E. This patient is best treated by restriction of water intake.

Last Answer : Answer: A DISCUSSION: Acute symptomatic hyponatremia is characterized by central nervous system signs of increased intracranial pressure. Changes in blood pressure and pulse are secondary to ... lead to central pontine myelinolysis. Oliguric renal failure may rapidly develop in severe hyponatremia

An 18-year-old man shot once in the left chest has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm. Hg, a heart rate of 130 beats per minute, and distended neck veins. Immediate treatment might include: A. Administration of one liter of Ringer's lactate solution. B. Subxiphoid pericardiotomy. C. Needle decompression of the left chest in the second intercostal space. D. Emergency thoracotomy to cross-clamp the aorta.

Description : An 18-year-old man shot once in the left chest has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm. Hg, a heart rate of 130 beats per minute, and distended neck veins. Immediate treatment might include: A. ... of the left chest in the second intercostal space. D. Emergency thoracotomy to cross-clamp the aorta.

Last Answer : Answer: AC DISCUSSION: The finding of distended neck veins in conjunction with hypotension should suggest tension pneumothorax or pericardial tamponade. Absent ipsilateral breath sounds and a trachea ... injuries. There is no role for aortic cross-clamping in this scenario of cardiogenic shock

Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available hematocrit or hemoglobin determination. B. Symptomatic anemia: orthostatic hypotension, severe tachycardia (greater than 120 beats per minute), evidence of myocardial ischemia, including angina. C. To increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.

Description : Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available ... increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.

Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Currently accepted guidelines for the transfusion of packed red blood cells include acute ongoing blood loss, as might occur in an injured patient, and the development of ... not be given based solely or predominantly on a numerical value such as a hematocrit of 28%

Answer: e The role of nutritional support in the cancer patient remains an important component of overall therapy. Preoperative nutritional support should be given only to those patients who do not require an emergency operation and who have severe weight loss (> 15% of pre-illness body weight) and a serum albumen < 2.9 mg%. Preoperative nutrition (enteral or parenteral) should not be given for longer than 7 to 10 days. Enteral nutrition is always the preferred route of feeding cancer patients if the GI tract is functional. There are several benefits of using the bowel lumen for nutrient delivery. The trophic effects of enteral feeding on small bowel mucosa have been well described. The integrity of the mucosal lining is maintained and it may provide an effective barrier to intraluminal

Description : Answer: e The role of nutritional support in the cancer patient remains an important component of overall therapy. Preoperative nutritional support should be given only to those patients who ... of bowel rest; this atrophy is not reversed by currently available total parenteral nutrition solutions

Last Answer : Which of the following hormones can be expected to be released as part of the stress response? a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b. Aldosterone c. Insulin d. Epinephrine nswer: a, b, d ... This hormone has the exact opposite effect of insulin, which promotes glucose storage and uptake by the cells

Ketorolac: A. Is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) approved for intravenous, intramuscular, and oral administration. B. Can be used indefinitely for postoperative analgesia. C. Can cause renal dysfunction. D. May decrease surgical blood loss.

Description : Ketorolac: A. Is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) approved for intravenous, intramuscular, and oral administration. B. Can be used indefinitely for postoperative analgesia. C. Can cause renal dysfunction. D. May decrease surgical blood loss.

Last Answer : Answer: AC DISCUSSION: Ketorolac tromethamine, an NSAID, is approved by the FDA for intravenous, intramuscular, and oral administration. The agent is an effective analgesic with minimal side ... Additionally, it is recommended that ketorolac should not be used for more than 5 consecutive days

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for both antigen and antibody detection b. Southern, northern, and western immunoblot techniques are used to detect DNA, RNA, or proteins, respectively c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a sensitive assay used to detect small amounts of microbial DNA, thus detecting infection at its early stages d. Infectious agents currently detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for ... detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Although the classic detection of infection based on clinical signs of infection and bacterial culture remain the most common clinical tools, increasing ... including CMV and HIV. Furthermore, preliminary investigations into possible detection of fungal pathogens are underway

Appropriate guidelines for the use of TPN in cancer patients include: a. Long-term TPN in patients with rapid progressive tumor growth unresponsive to other therapy b. Mildly malnourished patients undergoing surgery for a curable cancer c. Preoperatively administered TPN prior to surgery or other therapy in patients with severe malnutrition d. Patients in whom treatment toxicity precludes the use of enteral nutrition

Description : Appropriate guidelines for the use of TPN in cancer patients include: a. Long-term TPN in patients with rapid progressive tumor growth unresponsive to other therapy b. Mildly malnourished ... with severe malnutrition d. Patients in whom treatment toxicity precludes the use of enteral nutrition

Last Answer : Answer: c, d As a general rule, the most important factor to consider when making decisions about the use of TPN in patients with cancer is the response of the tumor to antineoplastic ... . Long-term TPN is not indicated with rapidly progressive tumor growth which is unresponsive to such therapy

True statements concerning hypoadrenal shock include which of the following? A. Adrenocortical insufficiency may manifest itself as severe shock refractory to volume and pressor therapy. B. The presence of hyperglycemia and hypotension may suggest the diagnosis of shock due to adrenocortical insufficiency. C. Hydrocortisone does not interfere with the serum cortisol assay and should be given to hemodynamically unstable patients suspected of having hypoadrenal shock. D. The rapid adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test should be performed to help establish the diagnosis of acute adrenocortical insufficiency.

Description : True statements concerning hypoadrenal shock include which of the following? A. Adrenocortical insufficiency may manifest itself as severe shock refractory to volume and pressor therapy. B. ... test should be performed to help establish the diagnosis of acute adrenocortical insufficiency.

Last Answer : Answer: AD DISCUSSION: Shock due to acute adrenocortical insufficiency is relatively uncommon but must be considered when shock refractory to volume replacement and pressor therapy is present. ... and it is the corticosteroid of choice while the ACTH stimulation test is being performed

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen kinetics in a critically ill, febrile patient? a. Oxygen consumption will likely exceed three times normal b. The high cardiac output and pulse rate are designed to increase oxygen delivery c. The hyperdynamic response may actually increase oxygen delivery to exceed the increase in oxygen consumption d. The patient can maintain adequate compensation as long as the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption rate is greater than 2:1

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen kinetics in a critically ill, febrile patient? a. Oxygen consumption will likely exceed three times normal b. The high cardiac ... adequate compensation as long as the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption rate is greater than 2:1

Last Answer : Answer: b, d In critically ill patients oxygen consumption may be elevated or depressed, but slight to moderate elevations in oxygen consumption is the most common abnormality in critically ill patients. ... however, and the patient will remain stable as long as the ratio is greater than 2:1

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient c. A minimum of two weeks of antibiotic therapy is indicated d. The addition of appropriate antibiotic therapy has made surgical therapy unnecessary in such cases e. Either a single agent or combination therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

Description : The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient ... therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

Last Answer : Answer: a, e The primary treatment for a perforated viscus is surgical, however antimicrobial therapy is an extremely important adjunct. Empiric antibiotic therapy for secondary ... whereas longer periods are indicated for immunosuppressed patients and with patients with extensive contamination

Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose. B. With normal renal function, this patient is likely to be volume overloaded. C. Proper fluid therapy would be unlikely to include potassium administration. D. Insulin administration will increase the potassium content of cells. E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood ... . E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

Last Answer : Answer: D DISCUSSION: Each 100-mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose causes a fall in serum sodium concentration of approximately 2 mEq. per liter. Excess serum glucose ... correction of the patient's associated acidosis produce movement of potassium ions into the intracellular compartment

Which of the following statements about the presence of gallstones in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Gallstones occur with the same frequency in diabetes patients as in the healthy population. B. The presence of gallstones, regardless of the presence of symptoms, is an indication for cholecystectomy in a diabetes patient. C. Diabetes patients with gallstones and chronic biliary pain should be managed nonoperatively with chemical dissolution and/or lithotripsy because of severe complicating medical conditions and a high operative risk. D. The presence of diabetes and gallstones places the patient at high risk for pancreatic cancer. E. Diabetes patients with symptomatic gallstones should have prompt elective cholecystectomy, to avoid the complications of acute cholecystitis and g

Description : Which of the following statements about the presence of gallstones in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Gallstones occur with the same frequency in diabetes patients as in the ... have prompt elective cholecystectomy, to avoid the complications of acute cholecystitis and gallbladder necrosis.

Last Answer : Answer: E DISCUSSION: Gallstones have been found to be very prevalent in patients with type II (non-insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus, perhaps related to the dyslipoproteinemia in ... added mortality associated with it. There is no causal relationship between diabetes and pancreatic cancer

A major problem in nutritional support is identifying patients at risk. Recent studies suggest that these patients can be identified. Which of the following findings identify the patient at risk? A. Weight loss of greater than 10% over 2 to 4 months. B. Serum albumin of less than 3 gm. per 100 ml. in the hydrated state. C. Malnutrition as identified by global assessment. D. Serum transferrin of less than 220 mg. per 100 ml. E. Functional impairment by history.

Description : A major problem in nutritional support is identifying patients at risk. Recent studies suggest that these patients can be identified. Which of the following findings identify the patient at risk? A. Weight ... transferrin of less than 220 mg. per 100 ml. E. Functional impairment by history.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCDE DISCUSSION: All of these are at least partially correct. It is not clear whether weight loss of 10% or 15% is the required threshold, but it certainly is close. Serum ... the hands of an experienced observer is quite a reasonable way of approaching and identifying patients at risk

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus b. Viral infections occur at equal frequency anytime during the post-transplantation period c. CMV infection in the post-transplant patient is most likely a pulmonary process d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus ... HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, Solid organ transplant patients are prone to develop viral infection by virtue of exogenous immunosuppression. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are those ... transplant patient or as painful herpes zoster in patients who have previously developed chicken pox

The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count (CBC), including platelet count. C. Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Description : The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count ( ... (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Last Answer : Answer: A DISCUSSION: The evaluation of most patients scheduled for elective surgery who do not have a history of significant bleeding disorders is somewhat controversial. An adequate history and ... suspected of having qualitative defects of platelet function (e.g., von Willebrand's disease)

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given several days prior to elective surgery b. The half-life of factor VIII concentrates is less than 24 hours c. A dose of 40–50 IU/kg of factor VIII concentrate should be given prior to the planned surgical procedure d. Factor VIII concentration administration should be given for the first 24 hours after surgery but may then be stopped if no abnormal bleeding has been observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given ... observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, e Although the half-life of factor VIII is 2.9 days in normal individuals, the half-life of factor VIII concentrates is 9 to l8 hours. Levels of 80% to ... infection in the hemophilia population. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Which of the following is/are not associated with increased likelihood of infection after major elective surgery? A. Age over 70 years. B. Chronic malnutrition. C. Controlled diabetes mellitus. D. Long-term steroid use. E. Infection at a remote body site.

Description : Which of the following is/are not associated with increased likelihood of infection after major elective surgery? A. Age over 70 years. B. Chronic malnutrition. C. Controlled diabetes mellitus. D. Long-term steroid use. E. Infection at a remote body site.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Controlled diabetes mellitus has been shown repeatedly not to be associated with increased likelihood of incisional infection provided one avoids operations on body parts ... site-are well-recognized adverse predictive factors and are identified in tables within the chapter

Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time and aPTT time are necessary to avoid bleeding complications b. A level of serum fibrinogen less than 100 mg/dl is associated with an increased risk of bleeding c. Recent (less than 10 days) major surgery is a contraindication to systemic but not regional fibrinolytic therapy d. A patient with a cerebrovascular event occurring less than two months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Description : Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time ... months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Last Answer : Answer: b Fibrinolytic therapy induces a hemostatic defect through a combination of factors. Hypofibrinogenemia and fibrin degradation products inhibit fibrin polymerization and, in combination ... is considered a major relative contraindication to either regional or systemic thrombolytic therapy

Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur with resultant loss of weight. When weight loss exceeds 10–15% of body weight, the complications of malnutrition interact with disease processes, with increased morbidity and mortality rates. The goal of nutritional support is maintenance of body cell mass and limitation of weight loss to less than 10% preinjury. The major impact of nutritional support in the trauma patient is to aid host defense. Under-nutrition may compromise the available host defense mechanism and may thus increase the likelihood of invasive sepsis, multiple organ system failure, and death. Resuscitation, oxygenation and arrest

Description : Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur ... requirements, caloric requirements should be distributed at a ratio of 70% as glucose and 30% as fat

Last Answer : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning body fuel reserves? a. The largest fuel reserve in the body is skeletal muscle b. Fat provides about 9 calories/gram c. Free glucose and glycogen stores are a trivial fuel reserve d. Body protein is a valuable storage form of energy

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal clinical parameters such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and urine output ensures optimal resuscitation in most patients c. Branch chain amino acids play and important role in the nutritional support of the patient d. Because of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal ... of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Last Answer : Answer: a, c The therapy of MOFS is directed towards interrupting the involving pathophysiologic process and providing an optimal physiologic environment for healing and recovery. ... Enteral absorption and processing of nutrients appears superior to TPN and lessens overall complications

Which of the following statements are true of elevated–anion gap metabolic acidosis? A. Hypoperfusion from the shock state rarely produces an elevated anion gap. B. Retention of sulfuric and phosphoric acids may lead to this form of acidosis. C. Copious diarrhea does not produce this condition. D. Rapid volume expansion may produce this form of acidosis. E. Use of lactated Ringer's solution is inappropriate in the treatment of lactic acidosis.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of elevated-anion gap metabolic acidosis? A. Hypoperfusion from the shock state rarely produces an elevated anion gap. B. Retention of sulfuric and phosphoric ... E. Use of lactated Ringer's solution is inappropriate in the treatment of lactic acidosis.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: An elevated anion gap may be produced by lactic acidosis from shock or by retention of inorganic acids from uremia. Lactated Ringer's solution rapidly corrects the ... . Bicarbonate loss from diarrhea and dilutional acidosis are non-anion gap types of metabolic acidosis

If a necrotizing soft tissue infection is considered, therapy mandates: a. Empiric administration of antibiotics active against gram-positive, gram-negative, and anaerobic bacteria b. Due to usually resistant species, penicillin is not indicated c. Immediate operative intervention and aggressive resection of all involved tissues is mandatory d. The use of hyperbaric oxygen has been demonstrated to be clearly advantageous

Description : If a necrotizing soft tissue infection is considered, therapy mandates: a. Empiric administration of antibiotics active against gram-positive, gram-negative, and anaerobic bacteria b. Due to usually ... is mandatory d. The use of hyperbaric oxygen has been demonstrated to be clearly advantageous

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Identification of a necrotizing, soft tissue infection mandates immediate operative intervention with aggressive resection of all involved tissues and empiric ... remains without controlled trials demonstrating any additional benefits derived from hyperbaric oxygen therapy

Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and complications of massive transfusions. Which of the following statements are true concerning complications of blood transfusions? a. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by major ABO blood group incompatibility b. Nonhemolytic transfusion reactions are usually due to RH incompatibility and are therefore more common in women of childbearing age c. The most common complication of massive blood transfusion is dilutional thrombocytopenia d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Description : Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and ... d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Immediate hemolytic reactions are usually caused by blood group ABO incompatibility although they may be caused by antigens of other blood group systems ... when associated with massive transfusion during complex intraoperative procedures such as thoracoabdominal aneurysm resection

Which of the following are not determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication? A. Myocardial infarct 4 months previously. B. Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm. per dl. hemoglobin. C. Premature atrial or ventricular contractions on electrocardiogram. D. A harsh aortic systolic murmur. E. Age over 70 years.

Description : Which of the following are not determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication? A. Myocardial infarct 4 months previously. B. Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm ... on electrocardiogram. D. A harsh aortic systolic murmur. E. Age over 70 years.

Last Answer : Answer: B DISCUSSION: Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm. per dl. hemoglobin concentration is a misleading sign. Evidence of congestive ... or ventricular contractions on the electrocardiogram are less strong determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication

Which of the following interventions is the single most important aspect for the patient at risk for anaphylaxis? a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or exerciseinduced anaphylactic reactions should always carry an emergency kit containing epinephrine for injection to prevent the onset of the reaction upon exposure.

Description : Which of the following interventions is the single most important aspect for the patient at risk for anaphylaxis? a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or ... alert bracelet will assist those rendering aid to the patient who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction

Last Answer : a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or exerciseinduced anaphylactic reactions should always carry an emergency kit containing epinephrine for injection to prevent the onset of the reaction upon exposure.

Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement, airway management, and standard nursing care support during the time that the patient has meningitis symptoms. a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

Description : Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement ... the virus to animals and humans. There is no human-to-human transmission of virus.

Last Answer : a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

A patient with gross fecal contamination and peritonitis from a ruptured sigmoid diverticulum has his midline wound left open to heal by secondary intention. Which of the following statement(s) describes this healing process? a. Wounds healing in this fashion have an altered sequence of healing compared to a primarily closed wound b. A bed of granulation tissue forms over exposed subcutaneous tissue c. Epithelialization is enhanced in the face of bacterial colonization d. The ability of a wound to form granulation tissue is dependent on the blood supply of the tissue

Description : A patient with gross fecal contamination and peritonitis from a ruptured sigmoid diverticulum has his midline wound left open to heal by secondary intention. Which of the following statement(s) describes this ... of a wound to form granulation tissue is dependent on the blood supply of the tissue

Last Answer : Answer: b, d Open wounds, whether they be ulcers or open surgical incisions closing by secondary intention, heal with the same sequence of inflammation, matrix deposition, epithelialization ... via bacterial and phagocytic cell products such as proteases, collagenases, elastases, and other enzymes

Wound contraction and ultimate contracture may be controlled by which of the following drugs? A. Colchicine. B. D-Penicillamine. C. Thiphenamil (Trocinate). D. Glucocorticoids. E. Ibuprofen (Motrin).

Description : Wound contraction and ultimate contracture may be controlled by which of the following drugs? A. Colchicine. B. D-Penicillamine. C. Thiphenamil (Trocinate). D. Glucocorticoids. E. Ibuprofen (Motrin).

Last Answer : Answer: AC DISCUSSION: Wound contraction is carried out by highly specialized cells called myofibroblasts, which, as their name implies, have histologic characteristics of fibroblasts ... under experimental conditions. Glucocorticoids and NSAIDs do not affect the wound contraction process

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen delivery? a. The amount of oxygen delivered to peripheral tissues is dependent upon the oxygen content in arterial blood and cardiac output b. Oxygen content is commonly measured in arterial blood c. The normal arterial-venous difference is 4 cc O2/dL d. Normal systemic oxygen delivery for a typical adult is approximately 1000 cc/min

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen delivery? a. The amount of oxygen delivered to peripheral tissues is dependent upon the oxygen content in arterial blood and cardiac ... O2/dL d. Normal systemic oxygen delivery for a typical adult is approximately 1000 cc/min

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d The amount of oxygen that is delivered to peripheral tissues is the product of the oxygen content in arterial blood times the cardiac output. Normally, oxygen content of arterial blood is ... of venous blood is 16 cc/dL. Hence, the normal arterial-venous difference is 4 cc O2/dL

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the autoregulation necessary to maintain oxygen consumption and oxygen delivery? a. A change in oxygen consumption is followed by a proportionate change in oxygen delivery b. A change in oxygen delivery is followed by a change in oxygen consumption c. Increases in oxygen delivery are due solely to an increase in cardiac output d. The normal ratio of oxygen delivery to consumption is 2:1

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the autoregulation necessary to maintain oxygen consumption and oxygen delivery? a. A change in oxygen consumption is followed by a proportionate ... increase in cardiac output d. The normal ratio of oxygen delivery to consumption is 2:1

Last Answer : Answer: a The relationships between oxygen consumption and oxygen delivery represent one of the most interesting regulation systems in homeostasis. First of all, if one of the three components ... in oxygen consumption. The normal ratio of oxygen delivery to consumption is approximately 5:1

Which of the following statement(s) concerning intravenous nutritional support is/are true? a. Concentrations of glucose no higher than 5% should be used to avoid peripheral vein sclerosis b. A major disadvantage of the peripheral technique is limited caloric delivery c. If total parenteral nutrition is required, access to the superior vena cava via the external jugular vein is the most suitable site d. Venous thrombosis is an uncommon complication for long-term central vein catheterization

Description : Which of the following statement(s) concerning intravenous nutritional support is/are true? a. Concentrations of glucose no higher than 5% should be used to avoid peripheral vein sclerosis ... suitable site d. Venous thrombosis is an uncommon complication for long-term central vein catheterization

Last Answer : Answer: b Although peripheral access can be used for intravenous nutrition, the major disadvantage of this technique is limited caloric delivery to meet catabolic demands within tolerated fluid ... studies that use phlebography or radionucleotide venography indicate the incidence is as high as 35%

All of the following statements about hemorrhagic shock are true except: A. Following hemorrhagic shock, there is an initial interstitial fluid volume contraction. B. Dopamine, or a similar inotropic agent, should be given immediately for resuscitation from hemorrhagic shock, to increase cardiac output and improve oxygen delivery to hypoperfused tissues. C. The use of colloid solutions or hypertonic saline solutions is contraindicated for treatment of hemorrhagic shock. D. In hemorrhagic shock, a narrowed pulse pressure is commonly seen before a fall in systolic blood pressure.

Description : All of the following statements about hemorrhagic shock are true except: A. Following hemorrhagic shock, there is an initial interstitial fluid volume contraction. B. Dopamine, or a similar inotropic ... shock, a narrowed pulse pressure is commonly seen before a fall in systolic blood pressure.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: Hemorrhagic shock is associated with a contraction of the interstitial fluid compartment because of precapillary vasoconstriction and reabsorption of interstitial fluid ... definitive evidence that such solutions are better than standard crystalloid solutions is lacking

Which of the following statements about delivery-dependent oxygen consumption are true? A. Below the critical oxygen delivery (D(overdot)O 2crit), one would expect to see a decrease in the lactate-pyruvate ratio. B. D(overdot)O 2crit may be increased in patients with sepsis. C. A desirable goal in the treatment of shock is to achieve delivery-independent oxygen consumption. D. The oxygen extraction ratio remains constant as long as oxygen delivery remains above D(overdot)O 2crit.

Description : Which of the following statements about delivery-dependent oxygen consumption are true? A. Below the critical oxygen delivery (D(overdot)O 2crit), one would expect to see a decrease in the ... oxygen extraction ratio remains constant as long as oxygen delivery remains above D(overdot)O 2crit.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: Oxygen consumption is said to be delivery dependent below a critical point, D(overdot)O 2crit, at which anaerobic metabolism supervenes. Above this point, oxygen ... the therapeutic benefit of trying to achieve supranormal oxygen delivery has not been firmly established

A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain of the fluid, which will likely demonstrate multiple bacteria including predominantly gram-positive rods b. A CT scan is indicated in a stable patient to define the extent of the disease c. Broad spectrum antibiotics followed with prompt extensive debridement is indicated d. A safe guideline is to resect infected necrotic tissue so that a several centimeter margin of grossly normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Description : A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain ... normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The presence of severe perineal infection (referred to as Fournier gangrene when this process involves the perineum and scrotum in males) is associated with a ... often provides improved wound care and patient management, although it is not invariably a positive outcome

A 65-year old patient has colon carcinoma metastatic to the liver and lungs. He has had a weight loss of 10 kg. Cytokine-dependent tumor cachexia is attributable to which of the following? a. Increased glucose uptake and increased glycogen breakdown occur in this circumstance. b. Suppressed activity of lipoprotein lipase results from TNFa c. TNFa stimulates lipolysis d. The differentiation process of pre-adipocytes is impaired e. Partial reversal of differentiated adipocytes to pre-adipocyte morphology and gene expression occurs

Description : A 65-year old patient has colon carcinoma metastatic to the liver and lungs. He has had a weight loss of 10 kg. Cytokine-dependent tumor cachexia is attributable to which of the ... is impaired e. Partial reversal of differentiated adipocytes to pre-adipocyte morphology and gene expression occurs

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d, e Tumor cachexia appears to be mediated by TNFa. Lipopolysaccharide (LPS), as well as other cytokines, activate a variety of inflammatory cells, most ... chronic syndromes of anorexia, weight loss, and cachexia that are associated with both chronic infection and malignancy

Which of the following is true of loss of gastrointestinal secretions? A. Gastric losses are best replaced with a balanced salt solution. B. Potassium supplementation is unnecessary in replacement of gastric secretions. C. Bicarbonate wasting is an unusual complication of a high-volume pancreatic fistula. D. Balanced salt solution is a reasonable replacement fluid for a small bowel fistula. E. A patient with persistent vomiting usually requires hyperchloremic replacement fluids.

Description : Which of the following is true of loss of gastrointestinal secretions? A. Gastric losses are best replaced with a balanced salt solution. B. Potassium supplementation is unnecessary in ... bowel fistula. E. A patient with persistent vomiting usually requires hyperchloremic replacement fluids.

Last Answer : Answer: DE DISCUSSION: Gastric secretions are relatively high in chloride and potassium. Other than an isolated pancreatic fistula, gastrointestinal tract losses below the pylorus ... Although potassium concentrations are low, copious losses require potassium supplementation to prevent hypokalemia

When using a function point estimation worksheet, there are 14 factors that impact the complexity of a project. These factors include _____. a. data communications, time tradeoffs, and estimated effort b. end-user efficiency, data communications, and reusability c. performance and programming language d. reports printed and PCA e. x-rays, extensibility, and operational conversion

Description : When using a function point estimation worksheet, there are 14 factors that impact the complexity of a project. These factors include _____.  a. data communications, time tradeoffs, and ... programming language  d. reports printed and PCA  e. x-rays, extensibility, and operational conversion

Last Answer : b. end-user efficiency, data communications, and reusability

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen consumption (O2)? a. O2 is normally 100–120 cc2/m2/min b. Resting O2 is controlled by the level of thyroid and catecholamine hormones c. Under steady state conditions the amount of oxygen consumed exceeds the amount of oxygen taken up by the pulmonary capillaries d. O2 is dependent on the status of pulmonary function

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen consumption (O2)? a. O2 is normally 100-120 cc2/m2/min b. Resting O2 is controlled by the level of thyroid and catecholamine ... of oxygen taken up by the pulmonary capillaries d. O2 is dependent on the status of pulmonary function

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Oxygen consumed in the process of metabolism is expressed as the volume of oxygen per minute (O2). O2 is normally 100-120 cc2/m2/min, or 200 cc/min for a typical adult. ... , so we measure O2 across the lung and assume that it is exactly the amount consumed in the systemic metabolism

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The pulmonary edema of ARDS occurs in the face of elevated left heart pressures c. The initial physiologic changes of ARDS involve the capillary endothelial cells and the type I pneumocyte d. Mechanisms proposed in the pathogenesis of ARDS include injury from mediators of inflammation elsewhere and from activated cellular elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The ... elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Last Answer : Answer: c, d, e Contributing pathophysiologic processes to the pulmonary manifestations of shock include the pulmonary component of the cardiovascular response, disruption of the normal ... injury from mediators of inflammation elaborated elsewhere, and from activated cellular blood elements

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive hemodynamic monitoring and fluid resuscitation b. Recent series have noted a decrease in the incidence of this condition c. Predisposing factors include old age, malnutrition, and immunosuppression d. Pseudomonas bacteremia is the most common cause of gram-negative sepsis e. Polymicrobial sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive ... sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Last Answer : Answer: c, e Gram-negative bacterial sepsis is a serious disease process that produces substantial morbidity and mortality in both normal and immunocompromised patients (10% to 20% and ... and most investigators agree that polymicrobial sepsis is more lethal than infection with a single organism

New treatment modalities designed to modulate host defense mechanisms that have been demonstrated conclusively to be of benefit include: a. Gut decontamination b. Anti-LPS antibody c. Anti-TNF antibody d. Thymopentin e. None of the above

Description : New treatment modalities designed to modulate host defense mechanisms that have been demonstrated conclusively to be of benefit include: a. Gut decontamination b. Anti-LPS antibody c. Anti-TNF antibody d. Thymopentin e. None of the above

Last Answer : Answer: e Selective gut decontamination involves the use of orally administered antibiotics that achieve a high intraluminal level directed against gram-negative aerobes and yeast, leaving ... but conclusive evidence that concurrent reduction of infection-related mortality occurs is not available

Cytokines with clearly defined actions in acute inflammation and early tissue injury include which of the following? a. Cysteine-X-Cysteine (C-X-C) chemokines b. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNFa) c. Transforming Growth Factor-b (TGF-b) d. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) e. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)

Description : Cytokines with clearly defined actions in acute inflammation and early tissue injury include which of the following? a. Cysteine-X-Cysteine (C-X-C) chemokines b. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNFa) c. Transforming Growth Factor-b (TGF-b) d. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) e. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d, e Polypeptide mediators, such as TNFa and IL-1, are considered early response cytokines and are actively involved in the initiation of the ... of tissue repair. Thus, coagulation and platelet activation provide the initial foundation for subsequent cellular recruitment

Factors that decrease collagen synthesis include all of the following except: A. Protein depletion. B. Infection. C. Anemia. D. Advanced age. E. Hypoxia.

Description : Factors that decrease collagen synthesis include all of the following except: A. Protein depletion. B. Infection. C. Anemia. D. Advanced age. E. Hypoxia.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Collagen synthesis, an integral part of wound healing, is affected by many local and systemic factors. Protein depletion impairs fibroplasia. Hypoproteinemia leads to diminution of ... more than any other factor, wound infection is associated with the risk of wound failure

Determinants of cerebral blood flow include: A. Preoperative neurologic dysfunction. B. Arterial CO 2 tension. C. Arterial O 2 tension. D. Systemic arterial pressure. E. All of the above.

Description : Determinants of cerebral blood flow include: A. Preoperative neurologic dysfunction. B. Arterial CO 2 tension. C. Arterial O 2 tension. D. Systemic arterial pressure. E. All of the above.

Last Answer : Answer: BCD DISCUSSION: Determinants of cerebral blood flow include arterial CO 2 and O 2 tensions, systemic arterial pressure, and temperature. Other factors that may affect cerebral ... and intracranial pressure are head position, jugular venous obstruction, and positive end-expiratory pressure

The characteristic changes that follow a major operation or moderate to severe injury do not include the following: A. Hypermetabolism. B. Fever. C. Tachypnea. D. Hyperphagia. E. Negative nitrogen balance.

Description : The characteristic changes that follow a major operation or moderate to severe injury do not include the following: A. Hypermetabolism. B. Fever. C. Tachypnea. D. Hyperphagia. E. Negative nitrogen balance.

Last Answer : Answer: D DISCUSSION: The characteristic metabolic response to injury includes hypermetabolism, fever, accelerated gluconeogenesis, and increased proteolysis (creating a negative nitrogen balance). ... time, food intake increases, but the patient generally experiences anorexia, not hyperphagia