Retinal artery occlusion?

Retinal artery occlusion?
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DefinitionRetinal artery occlusion is a blockage of the blood supply in the arteries to the retina -- the light-sensitive tissue in the back of the eye.Alternative NamesCentral retinal artery occlusion; Branch retinal artery occlusion; CRAO; BRAOCauses, incidence, and risk factorsRetinal arteries may become blocked by a blood clot or substances (such as fat or plaque) that get stuck in the arteries. These blockages may occur due to hardening of the arteries in the eye.Also, clots may travel from other parts of the body and block an artery in the retina. A common source of a clot would be from the carotid artery in the neck or from the heart lining.Most clots are caused by conditions such as:DiabetesDisease of the two large blood vessels in the neck (carotid artery disease)Disorder of high
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A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left eye. Fundus examination showed blurred edges of the left optic disc. The most probable diagnosis is: a. Raised intra cranial pressure b. Raised ocular tension c. Central retinal artery occlusion d. Optic neuritis

Description : A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the ... : a. Raised intra cranial pressure b. Raised ocular tension c. Central retinal artery occlusion d. Optic neuritis

Last Answer : ANSWER: D

Occlusion of the lower nasal branch of the central retinal artery results in one of the following field defects: a. Lower nasal sector field defect b. Upper nasal sector field defect c. Upper temporal field defect d. Lower temporal sector field defect

Description : Occlusion of the lower nasal branch of the central retinal artery results in one of the following field defects: a. Lower nasal sector field defect b. Upper nasal sector field defect c. Upper temporal field defect d. Lower temporal sector field defect

Last Answer : ANSWER: C  

In Central retinal artery occlusion, a cherry red spot is due to: a. Hemorrhage at macula b. Increased choroidal perfusion c. Increase in retinal perfusion at macula d. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids

Description : In Central retinal artery occlusion, a cherry red spot is due to: a. Hemorrhage at macula b. Increased choroidal perfusion c. Increase in retinal perfusion at macula d. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids  

Last Answer : ANSWER: D

A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is: a. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion b. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion c. Diabetes Mellitus d. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion

Description : A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is: a. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion b. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion c. Diabetes Mellitus d. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion  

Last Answer : ANSWER: A

100 days glaucoma is seen in: a. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion b. Branch Retinal Artery Occlusion c. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion d. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion

Description : 100 days glaucoma is seen in: a. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion b. Branch Retinal Artery Occlusion c. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion d. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

Retinal vein occlusion?

Description : Retinal vein occlusion?

Last Answer : DefinitionRetinal vein occlusion is a blockage in the blood supply from the retina -- the light-sensitive tissue in the back of the eye.Alternative NamesCentral retinal vein occlusion; Branch retinal vein ... in all or part of one eyeSigns and testsTests to evaluate the retina include:Color visionE

True statements about EOG (electro-oculogram) include: a. the EOG light-peak to dark-trough ratio is reduced in central retinal vein occlusion b. the light peak of EOG is abnormal in Best's disease c. the EOG light rise is produced by depolarization of the basal membrane of the retinal pigment epithelium d. all above

Description : True statements about EOG (electro-oculogram) include: a. the EOG light-peak to dark-trough ratio is reduced in central retinal vein occlusion b. the light peak of EOG is abnormal in Best' ... rise is produced by depolarization of the basal membrane of the retinal pigment epithelium d. all above

Last Answer : all above

Haemoglobin SC disease: a. is common amongst Afro-carribean people b. does not show sickle cells in the blood film. c. causes severe anaemia d. causes retinal vein occlusion

Description : Haemoglobin SC disease: a. is common amongst Afro-carribean people b. does not show sickle cells in the blood film. c. causes severe anaemia d. causes retinal vein occlusion

Last Answer : causes retinal vein occlusion

A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He might have: a. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy b. Cystoid macular edema c. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Central retinal vein occlusion

Description : A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He might have: a. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy b. Cystoid macular edema c. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Central retinal vein occlusion 

Last Answer : ANSWER: C 

Night blindness is caused by: a. Central retinal vein occlusion b. Dystrophies of retinal rods c. Dystrophies of the retinal cones d. Retinal detachment

Description : Night blindness is caused by: a. Central retinal vein occlusion b. Dystrophies of retinal rods c. Dystrophies of the retinal cones d. Retinal detachment

Last Answer : ANSWER: B

Which of the following would be expected following distal occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery? A. cerebellar ataxia B. contralateral hemiplegia C. dysarthria D. homonymous hemianopia E. palatal palsy

Description : Which of the following would be expected following distal occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery? A. cerebellar ataxia B. contralateral hemiplegia C. dysarthria D. homonymous hemianopia E. palatal palsy

Last Answer : Ans: D

Ticlopidine is recommended for the following except: A. To reduce neurological sequelae of stroke B. Transient ischaemic attacks C. To prevent occlusion of coronary artery bypass graft D. Intermittent claudication

Description : Ticlopidine is recommended for the following except: A. To reduce neurological sequelae of stroke B. Transient ischaemic attacks C. To prevent occlusion of coronary artery bypass graft D. Intermittent claudication

Last Answer : A. To reduce neurological sequelae of stroke

Regarding retinal metabolism: a. insulin is essential for the uptake of glucose by the retina b. anaerobic metabolism predominates c. the pigment retinal epithelium stores glycogen and supplies the need of the retina d. the demand of oxygen is met entirely by the central retinal artery

Description : Regarding retinal metabolism: a. insulin is essential for the uptake of glucose by the retina b. anaerobic metabolism predominates c. the pigment retinal epithelium stores glycogen and supplies the need of the retina d. the demand of oxygen is met entirely by the central retinal artery

Last Answer : anaerobic metabolism predominates

The following are true: a. the ratio of rod to cone is about 20:1 b. there are more ganglion cells in the retina than photoreceptors c. the rod density is the highest nasal to the optic disc d. the retinal artery is the main supply of nutrients to the photoreceptors

Description : The following are true: a. the ratio of rod to cone is about 20:1 b. there are more ganglion cells in the retina than photoreceptors c. the rod density is the highest nasal to the optic disc d. the retinal artery is the main supply of nutrients to the photoreceptors

Last Answer : the ratio of rod to cone is about 20:1

The most clear cut beneficial results are obtained in the use of anticoagulants for the following purpose: A. Prevention of recurrences of myocardial infarction B. Prevention of venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism C. Cerebrovascular accident D. Retinal artery thrombosis

Description : The most clear cut beneficial results are obtained in the use of anticoagulants for the following purpose: A. Prevention of recurrences of myocardial infarction B. Prevention of venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism C. Cerebrovascular accident D. Retinal artery thrombosis

Last Answer : A. Prevention of recurrences of myocardial infarction

Commotio retinae is seen in: a. Concussion injury b. Papilloedema c. Central retinal vein thrombosis d. Central retinal artery thrombosis

Description : Commotio retinae is seen in: a. Concussion injury b. Papilloedema c. Central retinal vein thrombosis d. Central retinal artery thrombosis

Last Answer : a

Centric occlusion description?

Description : Centric occlusion description?

Last Answer : A search on the internet brought me this description: central occlusion (centric occlusion) occlusion of the teeth when the mandible is in centric relation to the maxilla, with full occlusal surface ... centric+occlusion Read the other 2 definitions to understand the differences. That's what I did.

What do you mean by spatial and temporal occlusion?

Description : What do you mean by spatial and temporal occlusion?

Last Answer : Need answer

Thrombolytic therapy has become a useful adjunct in the management of peripheral arterial occlusion. In this setting, direct intraarterial administration rather than intravenous has been advocated to decrease the risk of systemic bleeding. Which of the following true statement(s) concerning the use of thrombolytic agents for arterial occlusion is/are true? a. A standard technique involves infusing high-dose urokinase, 4000 units per minute for 1–2 hours, directly into the clot by a catheter embedded in the thrombus b. If progress is made, further fibrinolytic therapy is given at 1000 to 2000 units per minute until clot lysis has occurred c. The usual infusion time by the above-stated technique is usually in excess of 24 hours d. Successful clot lysis occurs more frequently in arterial graf

Description : Thrombolytic therapy has become a useful adjunct in the management of peripheral arterial occlusion. In this setting, direct intraarterial administration rather than intravenous has been advocated ... may be indicated for situations where complete clot evacuation cannot be accomplished surgically

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, e The most popular method for intraarterial thrombolytic therapy for arterial occlusion involves passing a guidewire through the thrombus with arteriographic guidance and ... acute arterial occlusion) or when distal vasculative is occluded and precludes appropriate inflow patency

When a warm air is lifted off the surface in temperature depression it is called ----? A. An occlusion (Answer) B. A cold front C. An anticyclone D. A warm front

Description : When a warm air is lifted off the surface in temperature depression it is called ----? A. An occlusion (Answer) B. A cold front C. An anticyclone D. A warm front

Last Answer : A. An occlusion (Answer)

Each of the following result in ischemia EXCEPT C A. Arterial occlusion B. Venous occlusion C. Cyanosis D. None of these

Description : Each of the following result in ischemia EXCEPT C A. Arterial occlusion B. Venous occlusion C. Cyanosis D. None of these

Last Answer : Cyanosis

Each of the following can produce edema (increased fluid in the interstitial space) EXCEPT C A. Cardiac failure B. Hepatic failure C. Arterial occlusion D. None of these

Description : Each of the following can produce edema (increased fluid in the interstitial space) EXCEPT C A. Cardiac failure B. Hepatic failure C. Arterial occlusion D. None of these

Last Answer : Arterial occlusion

Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight. b) Simple Types of sleep apnea do not include a simple characterization. c) Mixed Mixed sleep apnea is a combination of central and obstructive apnea with one apneic episode. d) Central In central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Description : Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older ... central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Last Answer : a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight.

Ankylotic primary second molar in the mandible is not always a good space maintainer because of: a. Mesial inclination of the 1st permanent molar. b. It does not keep up with the rest of occlusion. c.Dull on percussion.

Description : Ankylotic primary second molar in the mandible is not always a good space maintainer because of: a. Mesial inclination of the 1st permanent molar. b. It does not keep up with the rest of occlusion. c.Dull on percussion.

Last Answer : b. It does not keep up with the rest of occlusion.

The clinical advantage of porcelain laminate veneers over composite resin veneers is: A. Color stability and resistance to abrasion B. Availability of self-curing or light activated placement (yes but not necessary a clinical advantage) C. Minimal over-contouring of the treated teeth ( not necessarily true depends on the dentist's abilities) D. May be used in edge to edge occlusion or Class III relationships.

Description : The clinical advantage of porcelain laminate veneers over composite resin veneers is: A. Color stability and resistance to abrasion B. Availability of self-curing or light activated placement (yes but not ... dentist's abilities) D. May be used in edge to edge occlusion or Class III relationships.

Last Answer : A. Color stability and resistance to abrasion

When setting up teeth for complete dentures having bilateral balanced occlusion, separation of posterior teeth during protrusion is done by: A. Increasing the anterior posterior occlusal curve B. Decreasing the angle orientation of the occlusal plane

Description : When setting up teeth for complete dentures having bilateral balanced occlusion, separation of posterior teeth during protrusion is done by: A. Increasing the anterior posterior occlusal curve B. Decreasing the angle orientation of the occlusal plane

Last Answer : B. Decreasing the angle orientation of the occlusal plane

The initial condylar guidance of 25 degrees was wrong and is changed to 45 degrees. What changes will you make to achieve balanced occlusion: A. Decrease incisal guidance B. Reduce cusps height C. Increase compensation curve

Description : The initial condylar guidance of 25 degrees was wrong and is changed to 45 degrees. What changes will you make to achieve balanced occlusion: A. Decrease incisal guidance B. Reduce cusps height C. Increase compensation curve

Last Answer : C. Increase compensation curve

.Which of the following is true: A. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of periodontitis B. Trauma from occlusion causes thickening of the marginal gingivae C. Periodontitis is the primary cause of teeth lost after the age of 35. D. All periodontal pockets can be identified by x-ray E. Periodontitis is the most common disease in the oral cavity

Description : .Which of the following is true:  A. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of periodontitis   B. Trauma from occlusion causes thickening of the marginal gingivae  C. Periodontitis is the ... can be identified by x-ray  E. Periodontitis is the most common disease in the oral cavity

Last Answer : E. Periodontitis is the most common disease in the oral cavity

What controls the occlusion:. A. Teeth B. Receptors in periodontal membrane C. Proprioceptors D. Neuromuscular receptors E. TMJ F. All of the above

Description : What controls the occlusion:. A. Teeth B. Receptors in periodontal membrane C. Proprioceptors D. Neuromuscular receptors E. TMJ F. All of the above

Last Answer : F. All of the above

Which of the following may be caused by a newly placed restoration which interferes with the occlusion A. Apical abscess B. Pulpal necrosis C. Apical periodontitist

Description : Which of the following may be caused by a newly placed restoration which interferes with the occlusion A. Apical abscess B. Pulpal necrosis C. Apical periodontitist

Last Answer : C. Apical periodontitist

The first thing to check when patient comes complaining of pain under denture is: A. Occlusion B. Soft tissues changes

Description : The first thing to check when patient comes complaining of pain under denture is: A. Occlusion B. Soft tissues changes

Last Answer : A. Occlusion

In partial dentures the guidelines “Guiding Planes” serve to: A. Aid in balancing occlusion B. Assure predictable clasp retention C. Form right angle with the occlusal plane D. Eliminate the necessity for precision attachment E. Eliminate the necessity for a posterior clasp

Description : In partial dentures the guidelines “Guiding Planes” serve to: A. Aid in balancing occlusion B. Assure predictable clasp retention C. Form right angle with the occlusal plane D. Eliminate the necessity for precision attachment E. Eliminate the necessity for a posterior clasp

Last Answer : B. Assure predictable clasp retention

The best treatment for amblyopia is: a. Orthoptic exercises b. Occlusion c. Surgery d. Best treat after age 10 years

Description : The best treatment for amblyopia is: a. Orthoptic exercises b. Occlusion c. Surgery d. Best treat after age 10 years

Last Answer : ANSWER: B 

What are the features for Human Retinal Pigment Epithelial Cells?

Description : What are the features for Human Retinal Pigment Epithelial Cells?

Last Answer : Human Retinal Pigment Epithelial Cells (HRPEpiC) are isolatedfrom human retina. HRPEpiC are cryopreserved at passage one anddelivered frozen. Each vial contains >5 x 10^5 cells in 1 mlvolume. HRPEpiC are ... fibronectin.HRPEpiC are negative for HIV-1, HBV, HCV, mycoplasma, bacteria,yeast and fungi.

Retinal detachment repair?

Description : Retinal detachment repair?

Last Answer : DefinitionRetinal detachment repair is eye surgery to place a detached retina back into its normal position.A detached retina means the light-sensitive tissue in the back of the eye has separated from ... be done to repair it. Pneumatic retinopexy (gas bubble placement) is also usually an office

Retinal detachment?

Description : Retinal detachment?

Last Answer : DefinitionRetinal detachment is a separation of the light-sensitive membrane in the back of the eye (the retina) from its supporting layers.Causes, incidence, and risk factorsThe retina ... posterior vitreous detachment.During a retinal detachment, bleeding from small retinal blood vessels may clo

What is the average time span for recovery from retinal surgery?

Description : What is the average time span for recovery from retinal surgery?

Last Answer : Depending on your health and age retinal eye surgery recovery can vary greatly. Doctors normally quote anywhere from three weeks to several months for full recovery.

How long does retinal detachment laser surgery take to preform with the macula on?

Description : How long does retinal detachment laser surgery take to preform with the macula on?

Last Answer : Retinal detachment laser surgery takes about 10-15 minutes. Depending on the size of the tear, outpatient hospital sugery may be required. Depending on the type of pain that you are going through. The most common amount of time for the procedure is around two hours.

In retinal rickets, the following hydroxylation of Vitamin D3 does not take place: (A) 25 (B) 1 (C) 24 (D) 7

Description : In retinal rickets, the following hydroxylation of Vitamin D3 does not take place: (A) 25 (B) 1 (C) 24 (D) 7

Last Answer : Answer : B

The non-protein part of rhodopsin is (A) Retinal (B) Retinol (C) Carotene (D) Repsin

Description : The non-protein part of rhodopsin is (A) Retinal (B) Retinol (C) Carotene (D) Repsin

Last Answer : Answer : A

Retinal exists as an ester with higher fatty acids in the (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Lung (D) All of these

Description : Retinal exists as an ester with higher fatty acids in the (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Lung (D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : D

Retinal is reduced to retinol by retinene reductase in presence of the coenzyme (A) NAD+ (B) NADP+ (C) NADH + H+ (D) NADPH + H+

Description : Retinal is reduced to retinol by retinene reductase in presence of the coenzyme (A) NAD+ (B) NADP+ (C) NADH + H+ (D) NADPH + H+

Last Answer : Answer : C

Prosthetic group in cone cell phototreceptors is (A) Iodine (B) Opsin (C) 11-cis-retinal (D) all-trans-retinal

Description : Prosthetic group in cone cell phototreceptors is (A) Iodine (B) Opsin (C) 11-cis-retinal (D) all-trans-retinal

Last Answer : Answer : C

Provitamins A include (A) Retinal (B) Retionic acid (C) Carotenes (D) All of these

Description : Provitamins A include (A) Retinal (B) Retionic acid (C) Carotenes (D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : C

Conversion of all-trans-retinal into alltrans-retinol requires (A) NAD (B) NADH (C) NADP (D) NADPH

Description : Conversion of all-trans-retinal into alltrans-retinol requires (A) NAD (B) NADH (C) NADP (D) NADPH

Last Answer : Answer : D

When light falls on rod cells (A) All-cis-retinal is converted into all-trans-retinal (B) 11-cis-retinal is converted into 11-trans-retinal (C) 11-trans-retinal is converted into all-transretinal (D) 11-cis-retinal is converted into all-trans-retinal

Description : When light falls on rod cells (A) All-cis-retinal is converted into all-trans-retinal (B) 11-cis-retinal is converted into 11-trans-retinal (C) 11-trans-retinal is converted into all-transretinal (D) 11-cis-retinal is converted into all-trans-retinal

Last Answer : Answer : D

Rhodopsin contains opsin and (A) 11-cis-retinal (B) 11-trans-retinal (C) All-cis-retinal (D) All trans-retinal

Description : Rhodopsin contains opsin and (A) 11-cis-retinal (B) 11-trans-retinal (C) All-cis-retinal (D) All trans-retinal

Last Answer : Answer : A

Retinal is converted into retinoic acid in the presence of (A) Retinal oxidase (B) Retinal carboxylase (C) Retinene reductase(D) Spontaneously

Description : Retinal is converted into retinoic acid in the presence of (A) Retinal oxidase (B) Retinal carboxylase (C) Retinene reductase(D) Spontaneously

Last Answer : Answer : D

Conversion of retinal into ritonal requires the presence of (A) NADH (B) NADPH (C) FADH2 (D) Lipoic acid

Description : Conversion of retinal into ritonal requires the presence of (A) NADH (B) NADPH (C) FADH2 (D) Lipoic acid

Last Answer : Answer : B