A patient complains of maceration of skin of the lids and conjunctiva redness at the inner and outer canthi. Conjunctival swab is expected to show: a. Slaphylococcus aureus. b. Streptococcus viridans. c. Streptococcus pneumonae d. Morax- Axenfeld diplobacilli

A patient complains of maceration of skin of the lids and conjunctiva redness at the inner and outer canthi. Conjunctival swab is expected to show: a. Slaphylococcus aureus. b. Streptococcus viridans. c. Streptococcus pneumonae d. Morax- Axenfeld diplobacilli
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ANSWER: D
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Related questions

Ten years old boy complains of itching. On examination, there are mucoid nodules with smooth rounded surface on the limbus, and mucous white ropy mucopurulent conjunctival discharge. He most probably suffers from: a. Trachoma b. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis c. Bulbar spring catarrh d. Purulent conjunctivitis

Description : Ten years old boy complains of itching. On examination, there are mucoid nodules with smooth rounded surface on the limbus, and mucous white ropy mucopurulent conjunctival discharge. He most ... from: a. Trachoma b. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis c. Bulbar spring catarrh d. Purulent conjunctivitis 

Last Answer : ANSWER: C 

A painful, tender, non itchy localized redness of the conjunctiva can be due to: a. Bulbar spring catarrh. b. Episcleritis. c. Vascular pterygium. d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis.

Description : A painful, tender, non itchy localized redness of the conjunctiva can be due to: a. Bulbar spring catarrh. b. Episcleritis. c. Vascular pterygium. d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis.  

Last Answer : ANSWER: B

A female patient 18 years old, who is contact lens wearer since two years, is complaining of redness, lacrimation and foreign body sensation of both eyes. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 with negative fluorescein test. The expected diagnosis can be: a. Acute anterior uveitis. b. Giant papillary conjunctivitis. c. Bacterial corneal ulcer. d. Acute congestive glaucoma

Description : A female patient 18 years old, who is contact lens wearer since two years, is complaining of redness, lacrimation and foreign body sensation of both eyes. On examination, visual acuity ... uveitis. b. Giant papillary conjunctivitis. c. Bacterial corneal ulcer. d. Acute congestive glaucoma  

Last Answer : ANSWER: B 

Severe congenital ptosis with no levator function can be treated by: A. Levator resection from skin side B. Levator resection from conjunctival side C. Fascia lata sling operation D. Fasanella servat operation

Description : Severe congenital ptosis with no levator function can be treated by: A. Levator resection from skin side B. Levator resection from conjunctival side C. Fascia lata sling operation D. Fasanella servat operation

Last Answer : ANSWER: C 

In trachoma the patient is infectious when there is: a. Arlt's line b. Herbert's pits c. Post-trachomatous concretions. d. Follicles and papillae in the palpebral conjunctiva.

Description : In trachoma the patient is infectious when there is: a. Arlt's line b. Herbert's pits c. Post-trachomatous concretions. d. Follicles and papillae in the palpebral conjunctiva.

Last Answer : ANSWER: D 

Organisms causing angular conjunctivitis are: a. Moraxella Axenfeld bacilli b. Pneumococci c. Gonococci d. Adenovirus

Description : Organisms causing angular conjunctivitis are: a. Moraxella Axenfeld bacilli b. Pneumococci c. Gonococci d. Adenovirus 

Last Answer : ANSWER: A

In retinal detachment, fluid accumulates between: a. Outer plexiform layer and inner nuclear layer. b. Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal pigment epithelium c. Nerve fiber layer and rest of retina. d. Retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch’s membrane.

Description : In retinal detachment, fluid accumulates between: a. Outer plexiform layer and inner nuclear layer. b. Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal pigment epithelium c. Nerve fiber layer and rest of retina. d. Retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch’s membrane.  

Last Answer : ANSWER: B 

The most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults is: a. Retinoblastoma b. Choroidal melanoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva d. Iris nevus

Description : The most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults is: a. Retinoblastoma b. Choroidal melanoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva d. Iris nevus 

Last Answer : ANSWER: B  

Koeppe’s nodules are found in: a. Cornea b. Sclera c. Iris d. Conjunctiva

Description : Koeppe’s nodules are found in: a. Cornea b. Sclera c. Iris d. Conjunctiva

Last Answer : ANSWER: C 

A young child suffering from fever and sore throat began to complain of lacrimation. On examination, follicles were found in the lower palpebral conjunctiva with tender preauricular lymph nodes. The most probable diagnosis is: a. Trachoma b. Staphylococal conjunctivitis c. Adenoviral conjunctivitis d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis

Description : A young child suffering from fever and sore throat began to complain of lacrimation. On examination, follicles were found in the lower palpebral conjunctiva with tender preauricular lymph ... is: a. Trachoma b. Staphylococal conjunctivitis c. Adenoviral conjunctivitis d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis

Last Answer : ANSWER: C 

A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching, and lacrimation with large flat topped cobble stone papillae raised areas in the palpebral conjunctiva is: A. Trachoma B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis D. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis

Description : A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching, and lacrimation with large flat topped cobble stone papillae ... is: A. Trachoma B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis D. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis 

Last Answer : ANSWER: D  

The most important symptom differentiating orbital cellulitis from panophthalmitis is: a. Vision b. Pain c. Redness d. Swelling

Description : The most important symptom differentiating orbital cellulitis from panophthalmitis is: a. Vision b. Pain c. Redness d. Swelling

Last Answer : ANSWER: A  

A 30 years old male presents with a history of injury to the eye with a leaf 5 days ago and pain, photophobia and redness of the eye for 2 days. What would be the most likely pathology? a. Anterior uveitis b. Conjunctivitis c. Fungal corneal ulcer d. Corneal laceration

Description : A 30 years old male presents with a history of injury to the eye with a leaf 5 days ago and pain, photophobia and redness of the eye for 2 days. What would be the most likely pathology? a. Anterior uveitis b. Conjunctivitis c. Fungal corneal ulcer d. Corneal laceration

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

Bacteria, which can attack normal corneal epithelium: a. Neisseria gonorrhea. b. Staphylococcal epidermidis c. Moraxella lacunata. d. Staphylococcal aureus

Description : Bacteria, which can attack normal corneal epithelium: a. Neisseria gonorrhea. b. Staphylococcal epidermidis c. Moraxella lacunata. d. Staphylococcal aureus 

Last Answer : ANSWER: A

Which of the following organism can penetrate intact corneal epithelium? A. Strept pyogenes B. Staph aureus C. Pseudomonas pyocyanaea D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Description : Which of the following organism can penetrate intact corneal epithelium? A. Strept pyogenes B. Staph aureus C. Pseudomonas pyocyanaea D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae 

Last Answer : ANSWER: D

The effects of topically applied anticholinesterase on the eye include: a. conjunctival hyperaemia b. raised intraocular pressure c. ciliary muscle contraction d. sphincter pupillae muscle relaxation e. retraction of the upper lids

Description : The effects of topically applied anticholinesterase on the eye include: a. conjunctival hyperaemia b. raised intraocular pressure c. ciliary muscle contraction d. sphincter pupillae muscle relaxation e. retraction of the upper lids

Last Answer : ciliary muscle contraction

Optic nerve axon emerges from: a. Ganglion cells b. Rods and cones c. Amacrine cells d. Inner nuclear layer

Description : Optic nerve axon emerges from: a. Ganglion cells b. Rods and cones c. Amacrine cells d. Inner nuclear layer 

Last Answer : ANSWER: A

Evisceration is: a. Excision of the entire eyeball b. Excision of all the inner contents of the eyeball including the uveal tissue c. Photocoagulation of the retina d. Removal of orbit contents

Description : Evisceration is: a. Excision of the entire eyeball b. Excision of all the inner contents of the eyeball including the uveal tissue c. Photocoagulation of the retina d. Removal of orbit contents

Last Answer : ANSWER: B 

A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left eye. Fundus examination showed blurred edges of the left optic disc. The most probable diagnosis is: a. Raised intra cranial pressure b. Raised ocular tension c. Central retinal artery occlusion d. Optic neuritis

Description : A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the ... : a. Raised intra cranial pressure b. Raised ocular tension c. Central retinal artery occlusion d. Optic neuritis

Last Answer : ANSWER: D

A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He might have: a. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy b. Cystoid macular edema c. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Central retinal vein occlusion

Description : A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He might have: a. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy b. Cystoid macular edema c. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Central retinal vein occlusion 

Last Answer : ANSWER: C 

A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is: a. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion b. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion c. Diabetes Mellitus d. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion

Description : A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is: a. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion b. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion c. Diabetes Mellitus d. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion  

Last Answer : ANSWER: A

After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red reflex. The first suspicion must be: a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis

Description : After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red ... a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis  

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

Which of the following organisms cause necrotizing fasciitis, or the flesh-eating disease? a. Group A streptococcus b. Group B streptococcus c. Staphylococcus aureus. d. strep viridins group

Description : Which of the following organisms cause necrotizing fasciitis, or the flesh-eating disease? a. Group A streptococcus b. Group B streptococcus c. Staphylococcus aureus. d. strep viridins group

Last Answer : a. Group A streptococcus

Which of the following can be a cause of food poisoning? a. Streptococcus Pyogenes b. Staphylococcus Aureus. c. Pseudomonas Fluorescens d. Streptococcus Epidermidis

Description : Which of the following can be a cause of food poisoning? a. Streptococcus Pyogenes b. Staphylococcus Aureus. c. Pseudomonas Fluorescens d. Streptococcus Epidermidis

Last Answer : b. Staphylococcus Aureus.

Which of the following can be a cause of food poisoning? a. Streptococcus Pyogenes b. Staphylococcus Aureus. c. Pseudomonas Fluorescens d. Streptococcus Epidermidis

Description : Which of the following can be a cause of food poisoning? a. Streptococcus Pyogenes b. Staphylococcus Aureus. c. Pseudomonas Fluorescens d. Streptococcus Epidermidis

Last Answer : b. Staphylococcus Aureus

Swimmer's ear is commonly seen in children from swimming pools in the summer. It is often caused by _____. a. Streptococcus b. Staphylococcus aureus. c. Pseudomonas d. A-C are correct

Description : Swimmer's ear is commonly seen in children from swimming pools in the summer. It is often caused by _____. a. Streptococcus b. Staphylococcus aureus. c. Pseudomonas d. A-C are correct

Last Answer : d. A-C are correct

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. b) Stage III A stage III ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted. b) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted.

Which of the following adverse drug reactions would you report to the Medicines and Healthcare Products regulatory Agency (MHRA) via the yellow card system for reporting? a) A patient reports a skin rash after starting a course on amoxicillin capsules. b) A patient reports experiencing dyspepsia when they take their indomethacin capsules. c) A patient complains of a dry irritating cough since they have started taking ramipril. d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.

Description : Which of the following adverse drug reactions would you report to the Medicines and Healthcare Products regulatory Agency (MHRA) via the yellow card system for reporting? a) A patient ... started taking ramipril. d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.

Last Answer : d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.

Ocular disorders

Description : Corneal sensations are diminished in

Last Answer : herpes virus

The best treatment for amblyopia is: a. Orthoptic exercises b. Occlusion c. Surgery d. Best treat after age 10 years

Description : The best treatment for amblyopia is: a. Orthoptic exercises b. Occlusion c. Surgery d. Best treat after age 10 years

Last Answer : ANSWER: B 

In grades of binocular vision; grade 2 is: a. Simultaneous macular vision b. Fusion c. Stereopsis

Description : In grades of binocular vision; grade 2 is: a. Simultaneous macular vision b. Fusion c. Stereopsis

Last Answer : ANSWER: B  

In paralytic squint, the difference between primary and secondary deviation in the gaze of direction of the paralytic muscle: a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains the same

Description : In paralytic squint, the difference between primary and secondary deviation in the gaze of direction of the paralytic muscle: a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains the same  

Last Answer : ANSWER: A  

In concomitant squint: a. Primary deviation > Secondary deviation b. Primary deviation < Secondary deviation c. Primary deviation = Secondary deviation d. None of the above

Description : In concomitant squint: a. Primary deviation > Secondary deviation b. Primary deviation < Secondary deviation c. Primary deviation = Secondary deviation d. None of the above

Last Answer : ANSWER: C 

The only extraocular muscle which does not arise from the apex of the orbit is: a. Superior rectus b. Superior oblique c. Inferior oblique d. Inferior rectus

Description : The only extraocular muscle which does not arise from the apex of the orbit is: a. Superior rectus b. Superior oblique c. Inferior oblique d. Inferior rectus

Last Answer : ANSWER: C  

The action of inferior oblique is: a. Depression, extorsion, abduction b. Depression, extorsion, adduction c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction

Description : The action of inferior oblique is: a. Depression, extorsion, abduction b. Depression, extorsion, adduction c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction 

Last Answer : ANSWER: D

The action of superior rectus is: a. Elevation, intorsion, abduction b. Elevation, intorsion, adduction c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction.

Description : The action of superior rectus is: a. Elevation, intorsion, abduction b. Elevation, intorsion, adduction c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction. 

Last Answer : ANSWER: B 

All the following are extraocular muscle of eye except: a. Superior rectus b. Ciliary muscle c. Inferior oblique d. Superior oblique

Description : All the following are extraocular muscle of eye except: a. Superior rectus b. Ciliary muscle c. Inferior oblique d. Superior oblique

Last Answer : ANSWER: B  

In complete third nerve paralysis the direction of the affected eye in the primary position is: a. Inward b. Outward c. Outward and up d. Outward and down

Description : In complete third nerve paralysis the direction of the affected eye in the primary position is: a. Inward b. Outward c. Outward and up d. Outward and down

Last Answer : ANSWER: D  

D-shaped pupil occurs in: a. Iridocyclitis b. Iridodenesis c. Cyclodialsis d. Iridodialysis

Description : D-shaped pupil occurs in: a. Iridocyclitis b. Iridodenesis c. Cyclodialsis d. Iridodialysis

Last Answer : ANSWER: D

Mydriasis is present in all the following except: a. Third nerve lesion b. Pontine haemorrhage c. Datura poisoning d. Fourth stage of anesthesia

Description : Mydriasis is present in all the following except: a. Third nerve lesion b. Pontine haemorrhage c. Datura poisoning d. Fourth stage of anesthesia  

Last Answer : ANSWER: B  

Homonymous hemianopia is the result of a lesion in: a. Optic chiasma b. Retina c. optic tract d. Optic nerve

Description : Homonymous hemianopia is the result of a lesion in: a. Optic chiasma b. Retina c. optic tract d. Optic nerve

Last Answer : ANSWER: C  

Papilloedema has all the following characteristics except: a. Marked loss of vision b. Blurring of disc margins c. Hyperemia of disc d. Field defect

Description : Papilloedema has all the following characteristics except: a. Marked loss of vision b. Blurring of disc margins c. Hyperemia of disc d. Field defect 

Last Answer : ANSWER: A  

Optic nerve function is best studied by: a. Direct Ophthalmoscope b. Retinoscope c. Perimetry d. Gonioscopy

Description : Optic nerve function is best studied by: a. Direct Ophthalmoscope b. Retinoscope c. Perimetry d. Gonioscopy

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

Optic disc diameter is: a. 1 mm b. 1.5 mm c. 2 mm d. 3 mm

Description : Optic disc diameter is: a. 1 mm b. 1.5 mm c. 2 mm d. 3 mm

Last Answer : ANSWER: B  

Which is not found in papilloedema? a. Blurred vision b. Blurred margins of disc c. Cupping of disc d. Retinal edema

Description : Which is not found in papilloedema? a. Blurred vision b. Blurred margins of disc c. Cupping of disc d. Retinal edema

Last Answer : ANSWER: C 

Homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion at: a. Optic tract b. Optic nerve c. Optic chiasma d. Retina e. Occipital cortex

Description : Homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion at: a. Optic tract b. Optic nerve c. Optic chiasma d. Retina e. Occipital cortex

Last Answer : ANSWER: A

All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except: a. Ptosis b. Diplopia c. Miosis d. Outwards eye deviation

Description : All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except: a. Ptosis b. Diplopia c. Miosis d. Outwards eye deviation

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

The type of optic atrophy that follows retro-bulbar neuritis is: a. Secondary optic atrophy b. Consecutive optic atrophy c. Glaucomatous optic atrophy d. Primary optic atrophy

Description : The type of optic atrophy that follows retro-bulbar neuritis is: a. Secondary optic atrophy b. Consecutive optic atrophy c. Glaucomatous optic atrophy d. Primary optic atrophy 

Last Answer : ANSWER: A  

Retro-bulbar optic neuritis is characterized by: a. Marked swelling of the optic disc. b. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye c. Impaired consensual light reflex in the affected eye d. Normal visual acuity

Description : Retro-bulbar optic neuritis is characterized by: a. Marked swelling of the optic disc. b. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye c. Impaired consensual light reflex in the affected eye d. Normal visual acuity  

Last Answer : ANSWER: B