Description : A female patient 18 years old, who is contact lens wearer since two years, is complaining of redness, lacrimation and foreign body sensation of both eyes. On examination, visual acuity ... uveitis. b. Giant papillary conjunctivitis. c. Bacterial corneal ulcer. d. Acute congestive glaucoma
Last Answer : ANSWER: B
Description : The color of fluorescein staining in corneal ulcer is: a. Yellow b. Blue c. Green d. Royal blue
Last Answer : ANSWER: C
Description : After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red ... a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis
Description : Ciliary injection is not seen in: a. Herpetic keratitis b. Bacterial ulcer c. Chronic iridocyclitis d. Catarrhal conjunctivitis e. Acute iridocyclitis
Last Answer : ANSWER: D
Description : Topical atropine is contraindicated in: a. Retinoscopy in children b. Iridocyclitis c. Corneal ulcer d. Primary angle closure glaucoma
Description : A 30 years old male presents with a history of injury to the eye with a leaf 5 days ago and pain, photophobia and redness of the eye for 2 days. What would be the most likely pathology? a. Anterior uveitis b. Conjunctivitis c. Fungal corneal ulcer d. Corneal laceration
Description : Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer, the drug always indicated is: a. Corticosteroid b. Atropine c. Antibiotics d. Antifungal
Description : The commonest cause of hypopyon corneal ulcer is: a. Moraxella b. Gonococcus c. Pneumococcus d. Staphylococcus
Description : Topical steroids are contraindicated in a case of viral corneal ulcer for fear of: a. Secondary glaucoma b. Cortical cataract. c. Corneal perforation d. Secondary viral infection.
Description : Patching of the eye is contraindicated in: a. Corneal abrasion b. Bacterial corneal ulcer c. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis d. After glaucoma surgery
Description : Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer, the drug always indicated is: a. Corticosteroids b. Cycloplegics c. Antibiotics d. Antifungals
Description : All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except: a. Ptosis b. Diplopia c. Miosis d. Outwards eye deviation
Description : All the following are extraocular muscle of eye except: a. Superior rectus b. Ciliary muscle c. Inferior oblique d. Superior oblique
Description : Best site where intraocular lens is fitted: a. Capsular ligament b. Endosulcus c. Ciliary supported d. Capsular bag
Description : Aqueous humour is formed by: a. Epithelium of ciliary body b. Posterior surface of iris c. Lens d. Pars plana
Last Answer : ANSWER: A
Description : Dense scar of cornea with incarceration of iris is known as: a. Adherent Leucoma b. Dense leucoma c. Ciliary staphyloma d. Iris bombe
Description : Bacteria, which can attack normal corneal epithelium: a. Neisseria gonorrhea. b. Staphylococcal epidermidis c. Moraxella lacunata. d. Staphylococcal aureus
Description : Herpes simplex keratitis is characterized by: a. Presence of pus in the anterior chamber b. No tendency to recurrence c. Corneal hyposthesia d. Tendency to perforate
Description : Tranta's spots are noticed in cases of: a. Active trachoma b. Bulbar spring catarrh c. Corneal phlycten d. Vitamin A deficiency
Description : Corneal Herbert's rosettes are found in: a. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis b. Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis c. Active trachoma d. Spring catarrh
Description : Which of the following organism can penetrate intact corneal epithelium? A. Strept pyogenes B. Staph aureus C. Pseudomonas pyocyanaea D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Description : Corneal sensations are diminished in: a. Herpes simplex b. Conjunctivitis c. Fungal infections d. Marginal keratitis
Description : The effective treatment of dendritic ulcer of the cornea is: a. Surface anesthesia b. Local corticosteroids c. Systemic corticosteroids d. Acyclovir ointment
Description : Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting ... production. d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors decrease aqueous humor production.
Last Answer : a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.
Description : The following structures are of ectodermal origin: a. the retina and its retinal pigment epithelium b. iris stroma c. the sclera d. the ciliary muscle e. the corneal stroma
Last Answer : the retina and its retinal pigment epithelium
Description : Schirmer’s test is used for diagnosing: a. Dry eye b. Infective keratitis c. Watering eyes d. Horner’s syndrome
Description : A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x ... d) lymphoscintigraphy. In lymphoscintigraphy, a radioactive-labeled colloid is injected into the lymph system.
Last Answer : a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein.
Description : The most suitable mydratic for a patient of corneal ulcer is (a) Atropine sulfate (b) Homatropine (c) Cyclopentolate (d) Tropicamide
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : The most suitable mydriatic for a patient of corneal ulcer is: A. Atropine sulfate B. Homatropine C. Cyclopentolate D. Tropicamide
Last Answer : A. Atropine sulfate
Description : Corneal sensations are diminished in
Last Answer : herpes virus
Description : The best treatment for amblyopia is: a. Orthoptic exercises b. Occlusion c. Surgery d. Best treat after age 10 years
Description : In grades of binocular vision; grade 2 is: a. Simultaneous macular vision b. Fusion c. Stereopsis
Description : In paralytic squint, the difference between primary and secondary deviation in the gaze of direction of the paralytic muscle: a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains the same
Description : In concomitant squint: a. Primary deviation > Secondary deviation b. Primary deviation < Secondary deviation c. Primary deviation = Secondary deviation d. None of the above
Description : The only extraocular muscle which does not arise from the apex of the orbit is: a. Superior rectus b. Superior oblique c. Inferior oblique d. Inferior rectus
Description : The action of inferior oblique is: a. Depression, extorsion, abduction b. Depression, extorsion, adduction c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction
Description : The action of superior rectus is: a. Elevation, intorsion, abduction b. Elevation, intorsion, adduction c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction.
Description : In complete third nerve paralysis the direction of the affected eye in the primary position is: a. Inward b. Outward c. Outward and up d. Outward and down
Description : D-shaped pupil occurs in: a. Iridocyclitis b. Iridodenesis c. Cyclodialsis d. Iridodialysis
Description : Mydriasis is present in all the following except: a. Third nerve lesion b. Pontine haemorrhage c. Datura poisoning d. Fourth stage of anesthesia
Description : Homonymous hemianopia is the result of a lesion in: a. Optic chiasma b. Retina c. optic tract d. Optic nerve
Description : Papilloedema has all the following characteristics except: a. Marked loss of vision b. Blurring of disc margins c. Hyperemia of disc d. Field defect
Description : Optic nerve axon emerges from: a. Ganglion cells b. Rods and cones c. Amacrine cells d. Inner nuclear layer
Description : Optic nerve function is best studied by: a. Direct Ophthalmoscope b. Retinoscope c. Perimetry d. Gonioscopy
Description : Optic disc diameter is: a. 1 mm b. 1.5 mm c. 2 mm d. 3 mm
Description : Which is not found in papilloedema? a. Blurred vision b. Blurred margins of disc c. Cupping of disc d. Retinal edema
Description : Homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion at: a. Optic tract b. Optic nerve c. Optic chiasma d. Retina e. Occipital cortex
Description : A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the ... : a. Raised intra cranial pressure b. Raised ocular tension c. Central retinal artery occlusion d. Optic neuritis
Description : The type of optic atrophy that follows retro-bulbar neuritis is: a. Secondary optic atrophy b. Consecutive optic atrophy c. Glaucomatous optic atrophy d. Primary optic atrophy