Description : Bacteria, which can attack normal corneal epithelium: a. Neisseria gonorrhea. b. Staphylococcal epidermidis c. Moraxella lacunata. d. Staphylococcal aureus
Last Answer : ANSWER: A
Description : Topical atropine is contraindicated in: a. Retinoscopy in children b. Iridocyclitis c. Corneal ulcer d. Primary angle closure glaucoma
Last Answer : ANSWER: D
Description : A 30 years old male presents with a history of injury to the eye with a leaf 5 days ago and pain, photophobia and redness of the eye for 2 days. What would be the most likely pathology? a. Anterior uveitis b. Conjunctivitis c. Fungal corneal ulcer d. Corneal laceration
Last Answer : ANSWER: C
Description : Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer, the drug always indicated is: a. Corticosteroid b. Atropine c. Antibiotics d. Antifungal
Last Answer : ANSWER: B
Description : The sure diagnostic sign of corneal ulcer is a. Ciliary injection b. Blepharospasm c. Miosis d. Positive fluorescein test.
Description : Topical steroids are contraindicated in a case of viral corneal ulcer for fear of: a. Secondary glaucoma b. Cortical cataract. c. Corneal perforation d. Secondary viral infection.
Description : A female patient 18 years old, who is contact lens wearer since two years, is complaining of redness, lacrimation and foreign body sensation of both eyes. On examination, visual acuity ... uveitis. b. Giant papillary conjunctivitis. c. Bacterial corneal ulcer. d. Acute congestive glaucoma
Description : Patching of the eye is contraindicated in: a. Corneal abrasion b. Bacterial corneal ulcer c. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis d. After glaucoma surgery
Description : The color of fluorescein staining in corneal ulcer is: a. Yellow b. Blue c. Green d. Royal blue
Description : Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer, the drug always indicated is: a. Corticosteroids b. Cycloplegics c. Antibiotics d. Antifungals
Description : The earliest feature of anterior uveitis includes: a. Keratic precipitates b. Hypopyon c. Posterior synechiae d. Aqueous flare
Description : One of the earliest features of anterior uveitis includes: a. Keratic precipitates b. Hypopyon c. Posterior synechiae d. Aqueous flare
Description : The commonest cause of unilateral exophthalmos is: a. Thyroid eye disease b. Lacrimal gland tumour c. Orbital cellulitis d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Description : Commonest cause of posterior staphyloma is: a. Glaucoma b. Retinal detachment c. Iridocyclitis d. High myopia
Description : Organisms causing angular conjunctivitis are: a. Moraxella Axenfeld bacilli b. Pneumococci c. Gonococci d. Adenovirus
Description : Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is: a. Macular oedema b. Microaneurysm c. Retinal hemorrhage d. Retinal detachment
Description : After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red ... a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis
Description : Herpes simplex keratitis is characterized by: a. Presence of pus in the anterior chamber b. No tendency to recurrence c. Corneal hyposthesia d. Tendency to perforate
Description : Tranta's spots are noticed in cases of: a. Active trachoma b. Bulbar spring catarrh c. Corneal phlycten d. Vitamin A deficiency
Description : Corneal Herbert's rosettes are found in: a. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis b. Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis c. Active trachoma d. Spring catarrh
Description : Which of the following organism can penetrate intact corneal epithelium? A. Strept pyogenes B. Staph aureus C. Pseudomonas pyocyanaea D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Description : Corneal sensations are diminished in: a. Herpes simplex b. Conjunctivitis c. Fungal infections d. Marginal keratitis
Description : Ciliary injection is not seen in: a. Herpetic keratitis b. Bacterial ulcer c. Chronic iridocyclitis d. Catarrhal conjunctivitis e. Acute iridocyclitis
Description : The effective treatment of dendritic ulcer of the cornea is: a. Surface anesthesia b. Local corticosteroids c. Systemic corticosteroids d. Acyclovir ointment
Description : Which of the following has drum stick appearance Options: 1) Clostridium tetani 2) Pneumococcus 3) Streptococcus pneumoniae 4) Staphylococcus epidermis
Last Answer : Correct Answer: 1) Clostridium tetani
Description : Most common cause of adult unilateral proptosis a. Thyroid orbitopathy b. Metastasis c. Lymphoma d. Meningioma
Description : Fifth nerve palsy could cause: a. Ptosis b. Proptosis c. Neuropathic keratopathy d. Lagophthalmos
Description : A 12 years old boy receiving long term treatment for spring catarrh, developed defective vision in both eyes. The likely cause is: a. Posterior subcapsular cataract b. Retinopathy of prematurity c. Optic neuritis d. Vitreous hemorrhage
Description : The most suitable mydratic for a patient of corneal ulcer is (a) Atropine sulfate (b) Homatropine (c) Cyclopentolate (d) Tropicamide
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : The most suitable mydriatic for a patient of corneal ulcer is: A. Atropine sulfate B. Homatropine C. Cyclopentolate D. Tropicamide
Last Answer : A. Atropine sulfate
Description : Corneal sensations are diminished in
Last Answer : herpes virus
Description : The best treatment for amblyopia is: a. Orthoptic exercises b. Occlusion c. Surgery d. Best treat after age 10 years
Description : In grades of binocular vision; grade 2 is: a. Simultaneous macular vision b. Fusion c. Stereopsis
Description : In paralytic squint, the difference between primary and secondary deviation in the gaze of direction of the paralytic muscle: a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains the same
Description : In concomitant squint: a. Primary deviation > Secondary deviation b. Primary deviation < Secondary deviation c. Primary deviation = Secondary deviation d. None of the above
Description : The only extraocular muscle which does not arise from the apex of the orbit is: a. Superior rectus b. Superior oblique c. Inferior oblique d. Inferior rectus
Description : The action of inferior oblique is: a. Depression, extorsion, abduction b. Depression, extorsion, adduction c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction
Description : The action of superior rectus is: a. Elevation, intorsion, abduction b. Elevation, intorsion, adduction c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction.
Description : All the following are extraocular muscle of eye except: a. Superior rectus b. Ciliary muscle c. Inferior oblique d. Superior oblique
Description : In complete third nerve paralysis the direction of the affected eye in the primary position is: a. Inward b. Outward c. Outward and up d. Outward and down
Description : D-shaped pupil occurs in: a. Iridocyclitis b. Iridodenesis c. Cyclodialsis d. Iridodialysis
Description : Mydriasis is present in all the following except: a. Third nerve lesion b. Pontine haemorrhage c. Datura poisoning d. Fourth stage of anesthesia
Description : Homonymous hemianopia is the result of a lesion in: a. Optic chiasma b. Retina c. optic tract d. Optic nerve
Description : Papilloedema has all the following characteristics except: a. Marked loss of vision b. Blurring of disc margins c. Hyperemia of disc d. Field defect
Description : Optic nerve axon emerges from: a. Ganglion cells b. Rods and cones c. Amacrine cells d. Inner nuclear layer
Description : Optic nerve function is best studied by: a. Direct Ophthalmoscope b. Retinoscope c. Perimetry d. Gonioscopy
Description : Optic disc diameter is: a. 1 mm b. 1.5 mm c. 2 mm d. 3 mm
Description : Which is not found in papilloedema? a. Blurred vision b. Blurred margins of disc c. Cupping of disc d. Retinal edema
Description : Homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion at: a. Optic tract b. Optic nerve c. Optic chiasma d. Retina e. Occipital cortex