When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives

When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life
intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after:
A. 2–3 half lives
B. 4–5 half lives
C. 6–7 half lives
D. 8–10 half lives
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. 4–5 half lives
by

Related questions

When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives

Description : When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives

Last Answer : B. 4–5 half lives

If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Description : If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Last Answer : B. × 2

If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Description : If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Last Answer : B. × 2

If a drug is excreted in urine at the rate of 10 mg/hr at a steady-state plasma concentration of 5 mg/L, then its renal clearance is: A. 0.5 L/hr B. 2.0 L/hr C. 5.0 L/hr D. 20 L/hr

Description : If a drug is excreted in urine at the rate of 10 mg/hr at a steady-state plasma concentration of 5 mg/L, then its renal clearance is: A. 0.5 L/hr B. 2.0 L/hr C. 5.0 L/hr D. 20 L/hr

Last Answer : B. 2.0 L/hr

The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant

Description : The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant

Last Answer : C. Volume of distribution

The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant

Description : The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant

Last Answer : C. Volume of distribution

The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened

The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened

Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of 2 hours C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Last Answer : Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features: A. Takes about one week to develop B. Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate C. It is irreversible D. Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings

If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance

Description : If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance

Last Answer : D. Total body clearanc

If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics: A. A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time B. Its clearance value will remain constant C. Its elimination half life will increase with dose D. It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 × half life period

Description : If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics: A. A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time B. Its clearance value will remain constant C. Its elimination half life will increase with dose D. It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 × half life period

Last Answer : B. Its clearance value will remain constant

The plasma protein bound fraction of a drug: A. Contributes to the response at the given moment B. Remains constant irrespective of the total drug concentration C. Remains constant irrespective of the disease state D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

Description : The plasma protein bound fraction of a drug: A. Contributes to the response at the given moment B. Remains constant irrespective of the total drug concentration C. Remains constant irrespective of the disease state D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

Last Answer : D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

The plasma protein bound fraction of a drug: A. Contributes to the response at the given moment B. Remains constant irrespective of the total drug concentration C. Remains constant irrespective of the disease state D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

Description : The plasma protein bound fraction of a drug: A. Contributes to the response at the given moment B. Remains constant irrespective of the total drug concentration C. Remains constant irrespective of the disease state D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

Last Answer : D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

The plasma protein bound fraction of a drug: A. Contributes to the response at the given moment B. Remains constant irrespective of the total drug concentration C. Remains constant irrespective of the disease state D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

Description : The plasma protein bound fraction of a drug: A. Contributes to the response at the given moment B. Remains constant irrespective of the total drug concentration C. Remains constant irrespective of the disease state D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

Last Answer : D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

The dose of the following class of drugs has to be adjusted by repeated measurement of the affected physiological parameter: A. Oral contraceptives B. Antiepileptics C. Antidepressants D. Oral anticoagulants

Description : The dose of the following class of drugs has to be adjusted by repeated measurement of the affected physiological parameter: A. Oral contraceptives B. Antiepileptics C. Antidepressants D. Oral anticoagulants

Last Answer : D. Oral anticoagulants

The plasma half life of penicillin-G is longer in the new born because their: A. Plasma protein level is low B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature C. Glomerular filtration rate is low D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Description : The plasma half life of penicillin-G is longer in the new born because their: A. Plasma protein level is low B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature C. Glomerular filtration rate is low D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Last Answer : D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

If the total amount of a drug present in the body at a given moment is 2.0 g and its plasma concentration is 25 μg/ml, its volume of distribution is: A. 100 L B. 80 L C. 60 L D. 50 L

Description : If the total amount of a drug present in the body at a given moment is 2.0 g and its plasma concentration is 25 μg/ml, its volume of distribution is: A. 100 L B. 80 L C. 60 L D. 50 L

Last Answer : B. 80 L

2 If the total amount of a drug present in the body at a given moment is 2.0 g and its plasma concentration is 25 μg/ml, its volume of distribution is: A. 100 L B. 80 L C. 60 L D. 50 L

Description : 2 If the total amount of a drug present in the body at a given moment is 2.0 g and its plasma concentration is 25 μg/ml, its volume of distribution is: A. 100 L B. 80 L C. 60 L D. 50 L

Last Answer : B. 80 L

Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the drug C. They minimise interindividual variations in the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Description : Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the ... the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Last Answer : A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug

Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Description : Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Last Answer : C. Lithium carbonate

If the total amount of a drug present in the body at a given moment is 2.0 g and its plasma concentration is 25 μ g/ml, its volume of distribution is: A. 100 L B. 80 L C. 60 L D. 50 L

Description : If the total amount of a drug present in the body at a given moment is 2.0 g and its plasma concentration is 25 μ g/ml, its volume of distribution is: A. 100 L B. 80 L C. 60 L D. 50 L

Last Answer : B. 80 L

Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the drug C. They minimise interindividual variations in the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Description : Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the ... the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Last Answer : A

‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Description : ‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Last Answer : B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Description : ‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Last Answer : B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

Which of the following constitutes ‘drug abuse’: A. Physician prescribed use of penicillin G for the cure of viral fever B. Self administration of aspirin to relieve headache C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria D. All of the above

Description : Which of the following constitutes ‘drug abuse’: A. Physician prescribed use of penicillin G for the cure of viral fever B. Self administration of aspirin to relieve headache C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. Differ from each other in the degree of attendant psychological dependence

Adaptive neurophysiological changes produced by repeated administration of a drug, which result in the appearance of characteristic withdrawal syndrome on discontinuation of the drug is called: A. Drug addiction B. Drug abuse C. Psychological dependence D. Physical dependence

Description : Adaptive neurophysiological changes produced by repeated administration of a drug, which result in the appearance of characteristic withdrawal syndrome on discontinuation of the drug is called: A. Drug addiction B. Drug abuse C. Psychological dependence D. Physical dependence

Last Answer : D. Physical dependence

In an anaesthetized dog, repeated intravenous injection of ephedrine shows the phenomenon of: A. Anaphylaxis B. Tachyphylaxis C. Idiosyncrasy D. Drug resistance

Description : In an anaesthetized dog, repeated intravenous injection of ephedrine shows the phenomenon of: A. Anaphylaxis B. Tachyphylaxis C. Idiosyncrasy D. Drug resistance

Last Answer : B. Tachyphylaxis

A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Description : A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Last Answer : B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication

A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Description : A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Last Answer : B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication

A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action: A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Description : A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action: A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Description : A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

Reflex bronchoconstriction is most likely to occur with the following form of inhaled antiasthma medication: A. Metered dose spray of drug in solution B. Dry powder rotacap C. Nebuliser D. Nebuliser with spacer

Description : Reflex bronchoconstriction is most likely to occur with the following form of inhaled antiasthma medication: A. Metered dose spray of drug in solution B. Dry powder rotacap C. Nebuliser D. Nebuliser with spacer

Last Answer : B. Dry powder rotacap

A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Description : A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Last Answer : C. Noncompetitive antagonist

A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Description : A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Last Answer : C. Competitive antagonist

The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Description : The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Last Answer : A. Safety

If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Description : If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Last Answer : D. Highly selective

The following statement is not true of ‘potency’ of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by the relative position of its dose-response curve on the dose axis C. It is often not a major consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Description : The following statement is not true of potency' of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by ... consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Last Answer : D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Description : Tricyclic antidepressants can alter the oral absorption of many drugs by: A. Complexing with the other drug in the intestinal lumen B. Altering gut motility C. Altering gut flora D. Damaging gut mucosa

Last Answer : C. Altering gut flora

Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Description : Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to ... in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Last Answer : A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form

In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Description : In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Last Answer : C. Inhalational

A fixed dose combination preparation meant for internal use must not contain the following class of drug: A. Thiazide diuretic B. Fluoroquinolone antimicrobial C. Corticosteroid D. H2 blocker

Description : A fixed dose combination preparation meant for internal use must not contain the following class of drug: A. Thiazide diuretic B. Fluoroquinolone antimicrobial C. Corticosteroid D. H2 blocker

Last Answer : C. Corticosteroid

A drug which is generally administered in standard doses without the need for dose individualization is: A. Insulin B. Mebendazole C. Prednisolone D. Digoxin

Description : A drug which is generally administered in standard doses without the need for dose individualization is: A. Insulin B. Mebendazole C. Prednisolone D. Digoxin

Last Answer : B. Mebendazole

A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Description : A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Last Answer : C. Noncompetitive antagonist

A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Description : A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Last Answer : C. Competitive antagonist

The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Description : The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Last Answer : A. Safety

If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Description : If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Last Answer : D. Highly selective

The following statement is not true of ‘potency’ of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by the relative position of its dose-response curve on the dose axis C. It is often not a major consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Description : The following statement is not true of potency' of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by ... consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Last Answer : D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Description : Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to ... in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Last Answer : A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form

In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Description : In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Last Answer : C. Inhalational

Which of the following is not a primary/fundamental, but a derived pharmacokinetic parameter: A. Bioavailability B. Volume of distribution C. Clearance D. Plasma half life

Description : Which of the following is not a primary/fundamental, but a derived pharmacokinetic parameter: A. Bioavailability B. Volume of distribution C. Clearance D. Plasma half life

Last Answer : D. Plasma half life