A fixed dose combination preparation meant for internal use must not contain the following class of drug: A. Thiazide diuretic B. Fluoroquinolone antimicrobial C. Corticosteroid D. H2 blocker

A fixed dose combination preparation meant for internal use must not contain the following class of drug: A. Thiazide diuretic B. Fluoroquinolone antimicrobial C. Corticosteroid D. H2 blocker
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1 Answer

Answer :

C. Corticosteroid
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Related questions

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Description : Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Last Answer : B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism

Which of the following statements is not true of fixed dose combination formulations: A. They are more convenient B. Contraindication to one of the components does not contraindicate the formulation C. The dose of any one component cannot be independently adjusted D. The time course of action of the different components may not be identical

Description : Which of the following statements is not true of fixed dose combination formulations: A. They are more convenient B. Contraindication to one of the components does not contraindicate the formulation ... adjusted D. The time course of action of the different components may not be identical

Last Answer : B. Contraindication to one of the components does not contraindicate the formulation

To be used as a topically applied ocular beta blocker a drug should have the following properties except: A. Strong local anaesthetic activity B. High lipophilicity C. High ocular capture D. Low systemic activity

Description : To be used as a topically applied ocular beta blocker a drug should have the following properties except: A. Strong local anaesthetic activity B. High lipophilicity C. High ocular capture D. Low systemic activity

Last Answer : A. Strong local anaesthetic activity

A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Description : A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Last Answer : B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication

A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Description : A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Last Answer : B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication

Budesonide is a (a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (b) High ceiling diuretic (c) Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma (d) Contraceptive

Description : Budesonide is a (a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (b) High ceiling diuretic (c) Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma (d) Contraceptive

Last Answer : Ans: C

Budesonide is a: A. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug B. High ceiling diuretic C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma D. Contraceptive

Description : Budesonide is a: A. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug B. High ceiling diuretic C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma D. Contraceptive

Last Answer : C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma

Reflex bronchoconstriction is most likely to occur with the following form of inhaled antiasthma medication: A. Metered dose spray of drug in solution B. Dry powder rotacap C. Nebuliser D. Nebuliser with spacer

Description : Reflex bronchoconstriction is most likely to occur with the following form of inhaled antiasthma medication: A. Metered dose spray of drug in solution B. Dry powder rotacap C. Nebuliser D. Nebuliser with spacer

Last Answer : B. Dry powder rotacap

A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Description : A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Last Answer : C. Noncompetitive antagonist

A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Description : A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Last Answer : C. Competitive antagonist

The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Description : The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Last Answer : A. Safety

If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Description : If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Last Answer : D. Highly selective

‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Description : ‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Last Answer : B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

The following statement is not true of ‘potency’ of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by the relative position of its dose-response curve on the dose axis C. It is often not a major consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Description : The following statement is not true of potency' of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by ... consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Last Answer : D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant

Description : The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant

Last Answer : C. Volume of distribution

When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives

Description : When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives

Last Answer : B. 4–5 half lives

If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Description : If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Last Answer : B. × 2

Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Description : Tricyclic antidepressants can alter the oral absorption of many drugs by: A. Complexing with the other drug in the intestinal lumen B. Altering gut motility C. Altering gut flora D. Damaging gut mucosa

Last Answer : C. Altering gut flora

Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Description : Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to ... in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Last Answer : A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form

In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Description : In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Last Answer : C. Inhalational

A drug which is generally administered in standard doses without the need for dose individualization is: A. Insulin B. Mebendazole C. Prednisolone D. Digoxin

Description : A drug which is generally administered in standard doses without the need for dose individualization is: A. Insulin B. Mebendazole C. Prednisolone D. Digoxin

Last Answer : B. Mebendazole

A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Description : A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Last Answer : C. Noncompetitive antagonist

A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Description : A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Last Answer : C. Competitive antagonist

The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Description : The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Last Answer : A. Safety

If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Description : If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Last Answer : D. Highly selective

‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Description : ‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Last Answer : B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

The following statement is not true of ‘potency’ of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by the relative position of its dose-response curve on the dose axis C. It is often not a major consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Description : The following statement is not true of potency' of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by ... consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Last Answer : D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant

Description : The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant

Last Answer : C. Volume of distribution

When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives

Description : When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives

Last Answer : B. 4–5 half lives

If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Description : If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3

Last Answer : B. × 2

If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance

Description : If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance

Last Answer : D. Total body clearanc

If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics: A. A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time B. Its clearance value will remain constant C. Its elimination half life will increase with dose D. It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 × half life period

Description : If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics: A. A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time B. Its clearance value will remain constant C. Its elimination half life will increase with dose D. It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 × half life period

Last Answer : B. Its clearance value will remain constant

Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Description : Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to ... in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites

Last Answer : A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form

In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Description : In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Last Answer : C. Inhalational

Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Description : Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Last Answer : B. Diuretic potency

The anticholinesterase action of edrophonium is short lasting because termination of its action depends on: A. Dissociation and diffusion of the drug from the enzyme B. Hydrolysis of the drug by the enzyme C. Synthesis of fresh enzyme molecules D. A combination of the above three processes

Description : The anticholinesterase action of edrophonium is short lasting because termination of its action depends on: A. Dissociation and diffusion of the drug from the enzyme B. Hydrolysis of the drug by the enzyme C. Synthesis of fresh enzyme molecules D. A combination of the above three processes

Last Answer : A. Dissociation and diffusion of the drug from the enzyme

Monitoring of blood levels of diuretic drugs is not practised because: A. No sensitive methods for measuring blood levels of diuretics are available B. It is easier to measure the effect of these drugs C. Response to diuretics is not related to their blood levels D. Diuretics need activation in the body

Description : Monitoring of blood levels of diuretic drugs is not practised because: A. No sensitive methods for measuring blood levels of diuretics are available B. It is easier to measure the effect of these ... Response to diuretics is not related to their blood levels D. Diuretics need activation in the body

Last Answer : B. It is easier to measure the effect of these drugs

Monitoring of blood levels of diuretic drugs is not practised because: A. No sensitive methods for measuring blood levels of diuretics are available B. It is easier to measure the effect of these drugs C. Response to diuretics is not related to their blood levels D. Diuretics need activation in the body

Description : Monitoring of blood levels of diuretic drugs is not practised because: A. No sensitive methods for measuring blood levels of diuretics are available B. It is easier to measure the effect of these ... Response to diuretics is not related to their blood levels D. Diuretics need activation in the body

Last Answer : B. It is easier to measure the effect of these drugs

Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker: A. Timolol B. Betaxolol C. Cartiolol D. Levobunolol

Description : Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker: A. Timolol B. Betaxolol C. Cartiolol D. Levobunolol

Last Answer : D. Levobunolol

Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Description : Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Last Answer : A. Is a β1 selective blocker

The dose of the following class of drugs has to be adjusted by repeated measurement of the affected physiological parameter: A. Oral contraceptives B. Antiepileptics C. Antidepressants D. Oral anticoagulants

Description : The dose of the following class of drugs has to be adjusted by repeated measurement of the affected physiological parameter: A. Oral contraceptives B. Antiepileptics C. Antidepressants D. Oral anticoagulants

Last Answer : D. Oral anticoagulants

Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Description : Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Last Answer : A. Reducing insulin release

The most appropriate measure to overcome diminished responsiveness to furosemide after its longterm use is: A. Switching over to parenteral administration of furosemide B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic C. Addition of acetazolamide D. Potassium supplementation

Description : The most appropriate measure to overcome diminished responsiveness to furosemide after its longterm use is: A. Switching over to parenteral administration of furosemide B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic C. Addition of acetazolamide D. Potassium supplementation

Last Answer : B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic

Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently diminishes the diuretic action C. Potassium chloride in tablet formulation is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

The following receptor has an intrinsic ion channel: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Histamine H2 receptor C. Adrenergic alfa receptor D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Description : The following receptor has an intrinsic ion channel: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Histamine H2 receptor C. Adrenergic alfa receptor D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Last Answer : D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

A prodrug is: A. The prototype member of a class of drugs B. The oldest member of a class of drugs C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation

Description : A prodrug is: A. The prototype member of a class of drugs B. The oldest member of a class of drugs C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation

Last Answer : C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite

A prodrug is: A. The prototype member of a class of drugs B. The oldest member of a class of drugs C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation

Description : A prodrug is: A. The prototype member of a class of drugs B. The oldest member of a class of drugs C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation

Last Answer : C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite

Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b) Is active against strains of streptococci that are resistant to erythromycin (c) Is more active against Mycobacterium avium complex (d) Does not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci

Description : Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b ... not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci

Last Answer : Ans: C

_____ is when an antimicrobial drug should harm the infectious agent but not the host. a. Selective toxicity b. Toxic dose c. Therapeutic dose d. Chemotherapeutic index

Description : _____ is when an antimicrobial drug should harm the infectious agent but not the host. a. Selective toxicity b. Toxic dose c. Therapeutic dose d. Chemotherapeutic index

Last Answer : a. Selective toxicity