Which racial difference in response to drugs has been
mentioned incorrectly below:
A. Africans require higher concentration of atropine to dilate pupils
B. Black races are more responsive to antihypertensive action of beta blockers
C. Japanese are more prone to develop SMON due
to halogenated hydroxyquinolines
D. Chloramphenicol induced aplastic anaemia is
rare among Indians

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Black races are more responsive to antihypertensive action of beta blockers

Related questions

Description : Which racial difference in response to drugs has been mentioned incorrectly below: A. Africans require higher concentration of atropine to dilate pupils B. Black races are more responsive ... SMON due to halogenated hydroxyquinolines D. Chloramphenicol induced aplastic anaemia is rare among Indians

Last Answer : B. Black races are more responsive to antihypertensive action of beta blockers

Description : Which of the following drugs attenuates the antihypertensive action of β-blockers: A. Cimetidine B. Indomethacin C. Chlorpromazine D. Imipramine

Last Answer : B. Indomethacin

Description : Which of the following drugs attenuates the antihypertensive action of β -blockers: A. Cimetidine B. Indomethacin C. Chlorpromazine D. Imipramine

Last Answer : B. Indomethacin

Description : Low dose therapy with the following category of antihypertensive drugs has been found to be more advantageous in the long-term than high dose therapy with the same drugs: A. β adrenergic blockers B. α1 adrenergic blockers C. Central sympatholytics D. Diuretics

Last Answer : D. Diuretics

Description : n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause ... high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Last Answer : B. They do not cause postural hypotension

Description : The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

Last Answer : A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. ... D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Last Answer : D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Description : Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Last Answer : C. Lithium carbonate

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Description : Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. ... iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Last Answer : C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy

Description : Select the correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: A. Antihypertensive combinations should always be preferred over single drugs B. Combinations of antihypertensives with similar ... should be combined D. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensives are combined

Last Answer : C. Antihypertensives which act on different regulatory systems maintaining blood pressure should be combined

Description : Adrenergic β1 selective blockers offer the following advantages except: A. Lower propensity to cause bronchospasm B. Less prone to produce cold hands and feet as side effect C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris D. Less liable to impair exercise capacity

Last Answer : C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris

Description : Adrenergic β 1 selective blockers offer the following advantages except: A. Lower propensity to cause bronchospasm B. Less prone to produce cold hands and feet as side effect C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris D. Less liable to impair exercise capacity

Last Answer : C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris

Description : Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to ... . To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppressio

Description : Prolonged use of the following drug has been implicated in the causation of subacute myelo-optic neuropathy (SMON): A. Diloxanide furoate B. Iodochlorhydroxyquin C. Emetine D. Furazolidone

Last Answer : B. Iodochlorhydroxyquin

Description : A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril

Last Answer : B. Methyldopa

Description : The following statement is true about misoprostol: A. It relieves peptic ulcer pain, but does not promote ulcer healing B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding ... side effects than H2 blockers D. It is the most effective drug for preventing ulcer relapse

Last Answer : B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding to H2 blockers

Description : Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked ... mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Last Answer : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms

Description : The following is not a valid indication for parenteral iron therapy: A. Inadequate response to oral iron due to patient noncompliance B. Anaemia during pregnancy C. Severe anaemia associated with chronic bleeding D. Anaemia in a patient of active rheumatoid arthritis

Last Answer : B. Anaemia during pregnancy

Description : The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

Last Answer : D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced cases

Description : Choose the correct statement about the action of nitrates on coronary vessels: A. They mitigate angina pectoris by increasing total coronary flow B. They preferentially dilate conducting ... the larger arteries D. They increase subepicardial blood flow without affecting subendocardial blood flow

Last Answer : B. They preferentially dilate conducting arteries without affecting resistance arterioles

Description : Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism ... Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity

Description : What is the most important reason for the restricted use of systemic chloramphenicol: A. Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression C. Its potential to cause superinfections D. Its potential to inhibit the metabolism of many drugs

Last Answer : B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression

Description : Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive

Last Answer : . Chloramphenicol

Description : A patient of iron deficiency anaemia has been put on iron therapy. What should be the rate of rise in haemoglobin level of blood so that response is considered adequate: A. 0.05 – 0.1 g% per week B. 0.1 – 0.2 g% per week C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week D. More than 1.0 g% per week

Last Answer : C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week

Description : Advantages of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors as antihypertensive include the following except: A. They tend to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal ... . They do not worsen blood lipid profile D. They do not impair work performance

Last Answer : B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

Description : Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Last Answer : C. Antitubercular drugs

Description : Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They ... more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Last Answer : B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality

Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Nifedipine B. Verapamil C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril

Last Answer : A. Nifedipine

Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response

Description : The following drug/drugs should not be used to treat tricyclic antidepressant drug poisoning: A. Quinidine B. Digoxin C. Atropine D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting an enzyme in the body: A. Atropine B. Allopurinol C. Levodopa D. Metoclopramide

Last Answer : B. Allopurinol

Description : The following is true of mefloquine: A. P. falciparum does not develop resistance to mefloquine B. Concurrent use of β blockers with mefloquine is contraindicated C. Neuropsychiatric reactions are the most important adverse effects of mefloquine D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Neuropsychiatric reactions are the most important adverse effects of mefloquine

Description : The fastest symptomatic relief as well as highest healing rates in reflux esophagitis are obtained with: A. Prokinetic drugs B. H2 receptor blockers C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Sodium alginate

Last Answer : C. Proton pump inhibitors

Description : Choose the correct statement about H2 receptor blockers: A. They are the most efficacious drugs in inhibiting gastric acid secretion B. They cause fastest healing of duodenal ulcers C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach D. They afford most prompt relief of ulcer pain

Last Answer : C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach

Description : Histamine H2 blockers attenuate the gastric secretory response to acetylcholine and pentagastrin as well because: A. H2 blockers block gastric mucosal cholinergic and gastrin receptors as well B. H2 ... acetylcholine and gastrin all act through the phospholipase C-IP3:DAG pathway in gastric mucosa

Last Answer : C. Acetylcholine and gastrin act partly by releasing histamine in gastric mucosa

Description : Is it possible to manually dilate your pupils?

Last Answer : My boyfriend can. Its REALLY creepy.

Description : Why do our pupils dilate when we look at or think about something we like?

Last Answer : I know its part of light entering more into your eyes that expands your pupil. Source: my eye doctor

Description : Folic acid: a. is water soluble b. is absorbed in the stomach c. deficiency leads to aplastic anaemia d. deficiency occurs with methatrexate treatment

Last Answer : is water soluble

Description : Antibiotics should be used routinely to prevent infection arising from oral surgery in patients suffering from all the following EXCEPT: A. Agranulocytosis B. Sever uncontrolled diabetes C. Aplastic anaemia D. Mumps E. Leukaemia

Last Answer : D. Mumps

Description : The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action B. Compensatory ... these drugs C. They decrease glomerular filtration D. They have relatively flat dose response curve

Last Answer : A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action

Description : 2 Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal at higher concentrations: A. Erythromycin B. Tetracycline C. Chloramphenicol D. Ampicillin

Last Answer : A. Erythromycin Although erythromycin is primarily bacteriostatic, it is bactericidal at high concentrations for some Gram-positive species, such as group A streptococci and pneumococci

Description : ndapamide differs from other diuretics in that: A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis B. It is a more efficacious antihypertensive C. Its antihypertensive action develops more rapidly D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

Description : Which of the following feature(s) limit(s) the use of prazosin as a first line antihypertensive drug: A. Higher incidence of disturbing side effects B. Unfavourable metabolic effects C. Development of tolerance when used alone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Children are more susceptible than adults to the following action of atropine: A. Tachycardia producing B. Cycloplegic C. Gastric antisecretory D. Central excitant and hyperthermic

Last Answer : D. Central excitant and hyperthermic

Description : Children are more susceptible than adults to the following action of atropine: A. Tachycardia producing B. Cycloplegic C. Gastric antisecretory D. Central excitant and hyperthermic

Last Answer : D. Central excitant and hyperthermic