A patient of iron deficiency anaemia has been put on iron therapy. What should be the rate of rise in haemoglobin level of blood so that response is considered adequate: A. 0.05 – 0.1 g% per week B. 0.1 – 0.2 g% per week C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week D. More than 1.0 g% per week

A patient of iron deficiency anaemia has been put on
iron therapy. What should be the rate of rise in
haemoglobin level of blood so that response is considered adequate:
A. 0.05 – 0.1 g% per week
B. 0.1 – 0.2 g% per week
C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week
D. More than 1.0 g% per week
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week
by

Related questions

A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while blood picture and haemoglobin level were improved. What could be the most likely explanation: A. Folic acid was not adequately absorbed resulting in partial response B. Folate therapy has precipitated vitamin B12 deficiency in the neural tissue C. Folate therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Description : A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while ... therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Last Answer : D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Description : Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. ... iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Last Answer : C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy

The following is not a valid indication for parenteral iron therapy: A. Inadequate response to oral iron due to patient noncompliance B. Anaemia during pregnancy C. Severe anaemia associated with chronic bleeding D. Anaemia in a patient of active rheumatoid arthritis

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Last Answer : B. Anaemia during pregnancy

A 60-year-old patient presented with anorexia, weakness, paresthesia and mental changes. His tongue was red, tendon reflexes were diminished, haemoglobin was 6 g% with large red cells and neutrophils had hypersegmented nuclei. Endoscopy revealed atrophic gastritis. Deficiency of which factor is likely to be responsible for his condition: A. Folic acid B. Vitamin B12 C. Pyridoxine D. Riboflavin

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Last Answer : B. Vitamin B12

A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated: A. Epoetin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxine

Description : A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated: A. Epoetin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxine

Last Answer : A. Epoetin

Megaloblastic anaemia developing under the following condition is due entirely to folate deficiency not associated with vitamin B12 deficiency: A. Malnutrition B. Blind loop syndrome C. Phenytoin therapy D. Pregnancy

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Last Answer : C. Phenytoin therapy

A patient of endogenous depression was put on imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic effect is likely to manifest: A. Three days B. One week C. Three weeks D. Three months

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Last Answer : C. Three weeks

Select the oral iron preparation which does not impart metallic taste and has good oral tolerability despite high iron content but whose efficacy in treating iron deficiency anaemia has been questioned: A. Iron hydroxy polymaltose B. Ferrous succinate C. Ferrous fumarate D. Ferrous gluconate

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Last Answer : A. Iron hydroxy polymaltose

In iron deficiency anaemia, the following is decreased: a. MCV (mean cell volume) b. ferritin c. MCH (mean cell haemoglobin) d. all above

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Last Answer : all above

Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose. B. With normal renal function, this patient is likely to be volume overloaded. C. Proper fluid therapy would be unlikely to include potassium administration. D. Insulin administration will increase the potassium content of cells. E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

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Which racial difference in response to drugs has been mentioned incorrectly below: A. Africans require higher concentration of atropine to dilate pupils B. Black races are more responsive to antihypertensive action of beta blockers C. Japanese are more prone to develop SMON due to halogenated hydroxyquinolines D. Chloramphenicol induced aplastic anaemia is rare among Indians

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You are treating a patient of deep vein thrombosis with warfarin. What value of International normalized ratio (INR) will you attempt by adjusting dose of the anticoagulant for an adequate therapeutic effect: A. 1.2 – 1.5 B. 1.3 – 1.7 C. 1.5 – 2.0 D. 2.0 – 3.0

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Last Answer : D. 2.0 – 3.0

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen kinetics in a critically ill, febrile patient? a. Oxygen consumption will likely exceed three times normal b. The high cardiac output and pulse rate are designed to increase oxygen delivery c. The hyperdynamic response may actually increase oxygen delivery to exceed the increase in oxygen consumption d. The patient can maintain adequate compensation as long as the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption rate is greater than 2:1

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Last Answer : Answer: b, d In critically ill patients oxygen consumption may be elevated or depressed, but slight to moderate elevations in oxygen consumption is the most common abnormality in critically ill patients. ... however, and the patient will remain stable as long as the ratio is greater than 2:1

Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin. Supplementing his diet with which of the following is likely to alleviate his symptoms? (a) Iron compounds (b) Thiamine (c) Folic acid and cobalamine (d) Riboflavin

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Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate when caring for the awake and oriented head injury patient? a) Supply oxygen therapy to keep blood gas values within normal range. The goal is to keep blood gas values within normal range to ensure adequate cerebral circulation.

Description : Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate when caring for the awake and oriented head injury patient? a) Supply oxygen therapy to keep blood gas values within normal range. ... rails and application of mitts are the appropriate interventions in the agitated head-injured patient.

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Long-term hydralazine therapy is likely to cause: A. Gynaecomastia B. Thrombocytopenia C. Haemolytic anaemia D. Lupus erythematosus

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Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient’s weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit, 5% dextrose intravenous solutions are adequate for the initial postoperative source of nutrition b. Preoperative immunologic status should be determined including total peripheral lymphocyte count and delayed hypersensitivity reaction to determine skin-test response to common antigens c. Routine postoperative fluid administration with intravenous 5% glucose solutions can provide the calories to meet basal energy requirements d. A jejunal feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

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Presently, the goal of antiretroviral therapy is: A. Eradication of HIV from the body of the patient B. Inhibit viral replication to undetectable levels C. Restore immune competence of the patient to effective level D. Both 'B' and 'C'

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Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C

Infusion of potassium chloride is indicated in digitalis toxicity when the manifestation(s) is/are: A. Vomiting, hyperapnoea and visual disturbance B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy C. Ventricular tachycardia in a child who has accidentally ingested 10 digoxin tablets D. 2:1 A-V block with occasional ventricular extrasystoles

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Last Answer : B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy

What is the usual response to digoxin in a patient of atrial fibrillation: A. Restoration of normal sinus rhythm B. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to atrial flutter C. Increase in atrial fibrillation frequency, but decrease in ventricular rate D. Decrease in atrial fibrillation frequency, but increase in ventricular rate

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Last Answer : C. Increase in atrial fibrillation frequency, but decrease in ventricular rate

A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but blood sugar level and lipid profile were normal. Select the most suitable antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Description : A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but ... antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Last Answer : C. Atenolol

Iron therapy is ineffective in which of the following conditions: (A) Chronic blood loss (B) Inadequate Fe intake (C) Hypochromic anaemia of pregnancy (D) Thalassaemia minor

Description : Iron therapy is ineffective in which of the following conditions: (A) Chronic blood loss (B) Inadequate Fe intake (C) Hypochromic anaemia of pregnancy (D) Thalassaemia minor

Last Answer : Answer : D

A patient of acute myocardial infarction has been brought to the ICU. What is the time lapse since symptom onset beyond which you will not consider instituting thrombolytic therapy: A. 3 hours B. 6 hours C. 16 hours D. 24 hours

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction has been brought to the ICU. What is the time lapse since symptom onset beyond which you will not consider instituting thrombolytic therapy: A. 3 hours B. 6 hours C. 16 hours D. 24 hours

Last Answer : C. 16 hours

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

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Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

Which of the following is Type B ADRS? a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics

Description : Which of the following is Type B ADRS? a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics

Last Answer : c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine 

Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia, shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin. Supplementing his die

Description : Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia, shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin. Supplementing his die

Last Answer : Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia, shows large, immature, nucleated ... and cobalamine C. Riboflavin D. Iron compounds

Haemoglobin SC disease: a. is common amongst Afro-carribean people b. does not show sickle cells in the blood film. c. causes severe anaemia d. causes retinal vein occlusion

Description : Haemoglobin SC disease: a. is common amongst Afro-carribean people b. does not show sickle cells in the blood film. c. causes severe anaemia d. causes retinal vein occlusion

Last Answer : causes retinal vein occlusion

n addition to counteracting potassium loss, triamterene also opposes the following consequence of thiazide/furosemide therapy: A. Hyperuricaemia B. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol C. Magnesium loss D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

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Last Answer : C. Magnesium loss

The typical response to intravenous injection of 5-HT in an anaesthetised animal is: A. Rise in BP B. Fall in BP C. Rise followed by brief fall in BP D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

Description : The typical response to intravenous injection of 5-HT in an anaesthetised animal is: A. Rise in BP B. Fall in BP C. Rise followed by brief fall in BP D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

Last Answer : D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

If the rate of change of grade permitted along a vertical curve is r and total change of grade is g%, the length L of the curve to be provided, is (A) L = (r × 100/g) m (B) L = (g × 100/r) m (C) L = (r + g) × 100m (D) L = [100/(r + g)] m

Description : If the rate of change of grade permitted along a vertical curve is r and total change of grade is g%, the length L of the curve to be provided, is (A) L = (r × 100/g) m (B) L = (g × 100/r) m (C) L = (r + g) × 100m (D) L = [100/(r + g)] m

Last Answer : Answer: Option B

The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of previously untreated HIV patient consist of: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI C. Three NRTIs D. Any of the above

Description : The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of previously untreated HIV patient consist of: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI C. Three NRTIs D. Any of the above

Last Answer : D. Any of the above

The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the same 3 drugs for another 3 months B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs C. Replace 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Description : The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the ... 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Last Answer : B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs

If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Description : If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. ... + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Last Answer : . The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen

Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Description : Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Last Answer : B. Patients with allergic disorders

The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent suppression of gastric acid enhances efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

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Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer

Milrinone is best used: A. In a patient of mild CHF B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF C. For long-term maintenance therapy of CHF D. To suppress digitalis induced arrhythmias

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Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

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Last Answer : C. Herpes simplex keratitis

In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the following drug can vitiate glycaemia control: A. Prednisolone B. Prazosin C. Paracetamol D. Phenytoin

Description : In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the following drug can vitiate glycaemia control: A. Prednisolone B. Prazosin C. Paracetamol D. Phenytoin

Last Answer : A. Prednisolone

The aim of iodine therapy before subtotal thyroidectomy in Grave’s disease is: A. To render the patient euthyroid B. To restore the iodine content of the thyroid gland C. To inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine into triiodothyronine D. To reduce friability and vascularity of the thyroid gland

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Last Answer : D. To reduce friability and vascularity of the thyroid gland

Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin therapy prevents granulomatous lesions and cardiac complications of acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

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Last Answer : B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid

Safe and adequate daily dietary intake of chromium in adults in mg is (A) 0.01–0.02 (B) 0.02–0.03 (C) 0.03–0.04 (D) 0.05–0.2

Description : Safe and adequate daily dietary intake of chromium in adults in mg is (A) 0.01–0.02 (B) 0.02–0.03 (C) 0.03–0.04 (D) 0.05–0.2

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In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an alternative so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol

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Last Answer : A. Pindolol

In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an alternative so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol

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Last Answer : A. Pindolol

17.5 Actions of thyroxine include the following except: A. Induction of negative nitrogen balance B. Reduction in plasma cholesterol level C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level D. Rise in blood sugar level

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Last Answer : D. Rise in blood sugar level

What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced after clinical response occurs C. The patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Description : What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced ... patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase

In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli

Description : In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow ... showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli

Last Answer : B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response

Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly after the initiation of warfarin therapy: A. Factor VII B. Factor IX C. Factor X D. Prothrombin

Description : Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly after the initiation of warfarin therapy: A. Factor VII B. Factor IX C. Factor X D. Prothrombin

Last Answer : A. Factor VII

6 A patient of chronic bronchial asthma was maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg/day for 3 months. It was decided to switch him over to inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate 200 μg 4 times a day. What should be done to the oral prednisolone medication after starting inhaled beclomethasone: A. It should be stopped immediately B. Its dose should be tapered from the next day C. It should be given at the same dose for one week and then tapered D. Its dose should be doubled for one week and then tapered (p. 2

Description : 6 A patient of chronic bronchial asthma was maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg/day for 3 months. It was decided to switch him over to inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate 200 μg 4 times a day. What should ... week and then tapered D. Its dose should be doubled for one week and then tapered (p. 2

Last Answer : C. It should be given at the same dose for one week and then tapered