Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Choose the correct statement about iron therapy:
A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron
is faster than with oral iron therapy
B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious
anaemia
C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given
during pregnancy
D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given
during pregnancy
by

Related questions

The following is not a valid indication for parenteral iron therapy: A. Inadequate response to oral iron due to patient noncompliance B. Anaemia during pregnancy C. Severe anaemia associated with chronic bleeding D. Anaemia in a patient of active rheumatoid arthritis

Description : The following is not a valid indication for parenteral iron therapy: A. Inadequate response to oral iron due to patient noncompliance B. Anaemia during pregnancy C. Severe anaemia associated with chronic bleeding D. Anaemia in a patient of active rheumatoid arthritis

Last Answer : B. Anaemia during pregnancy

A patient of iron deficiency anaemia has been put on iron therapy. What should be the rate of rise in haemoglobin level of blood so that response is considered adequate: A. 0.05 – 0.1 g% per week B. 0.1 – 0.2 g% per week C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week D. More than 1.0 g% per week

Description : A patient of iron deficiency anaemia has been put on iron therapy. What should be the rate of rise in haemoglobin level of blood so that response is considered adequate: A. 0.05 – 0.1 g% per week B. 0.1 – 0.2 g% per week C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week D. More than 1.0 g% per week

Last Answer : C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week

A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while blood picture and haemoglobin level were improved. What could be the most likely explanation: A. Folic acid was not adequately absorbed resulting in partial response B. Folate therapy has precipitated vitamin B12 deficiency in the neural tissue C. Folate therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Description : A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while ... therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Last Answer : D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

___________ absorption in infants and children is noticeably faster than in neonatal period. a) Oral. b) Topical c) Intravenous. d) Intramuscular.

Description : ___________ absorption in infants and children is noticeably faster than in neonatal period. a) Oral. b) Topical c) Intravenous. d) Intramuscular.

Last Answer : a) Oral. 

The following regimen is preferred for nonsurgical termination of pregnancy in the first 7 weeks: A. Intravenous oxytocin infusion B. Intramuscular carboprost C. Intravaginal mifepristone followed by intraamniotic dinoprost D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprostol

Description : The following regimen is preferred for nonsurgical termination of pregnancy in the first 7 weeks: A. Intravenous oxytocin infusion B. Intramuscular carboprost C. Intravaginal mifepristone followed by intraamniotic dinoprost D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprostol

Last Answer : D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprosto

Select the most appropriate drug for regular prophylactic therapy in a 10 year old child who suffers from exercise induced asthma: A. Oral salbutamol B. Oral theophylline C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate D. Inhaled salmeterol

Description : Select the most appropriate drug for regular prophylactic therapy in a 10 year old child who suffers from exercise induced asthma: A. Oral salbutamol B. Oral theophylline C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate D. Inhaled salmeterol

Last Answer : C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate

The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Description : The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Last Answer : C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis

Glyceryl trinitrate is administered by the following routes except: A. Oral B. Sublingual C. Intramuscular D. Intravenous

Description : Glyceryl trinitrate is administered by the following routes except: A. Oral B. Sublingual C. Intramuscular D. Intravenous

Last Answer : C. Intramuscular

Megaloblastic anaemia developing under the following condition is due entirely to folate deficiency not associated with vitamin B12 deficiency: A. Malnutrition B. Blind loop syndrome C. Phenytoin therapy D. Pregnancy

Description : Megaloblastic anaemia developing under the following condition is due entirely to folate deficiency not associated with vitamin B12 deficiency: A. Malnutrition B. Blind loop syndrome C. Phenytoin therapy D. Pregnancy

Last Answer : C. Phenytoin therapy

Folinic acid is specifically indicated for: A. Prophylaxis of neural tube defect in the offspring of women receiving anticonvulsant medication B. Counteracting toxicity of high dose methotrexate C. Pernicious anaemia D. Anaemia associated with renal failure

Description : Folinic acid is specifically indicated for: A. Prophylaxis of neural tube defect in the offspring of women receiving anticonvulsant medication B. Counteracting toxicity of high dose methotrexate C. Pernicious anaemia D. Anaemia associated with renal failure

Last Answer : C. Pernicious anaemia

Which racial difference in response to drugs has been mentioned incorrectly below: A. Africans require higher concentration of atropine to dilate pupils B. Black races are more responsive to antihypertensive action of beta blockers C. Japanese are more prone to develop SMON due to halogenated hydroxyquinolines D. Chloramphenicol induced aplastic anaemia is rare among Indians

Description : Which racial difference in response to drugs has been mentioned incorrectly below: A. Africans require higher concentration of atropine to dilate pupils B. Black races are more responsive ... SMON due to halogenated hydroxyquinolines D. Chloramphenicol induced aplastic anaemia is rare among Indians

Last Answer : B. Black races are more responsive to antihypertensive action of beta blockers

Which one of the following is true about oral hairy leukoplakia?** ADC M07 A. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue C. Usually caused by Candida species D. Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue E. Always associated with pernicious anaemia

Description : Which one of the following is true about oral hairy leukoplakia?** ADC M07 A. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue B. Associated with HIV ... Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue E. Always associated with pernicious anaemia

Last Answer : B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue C. Usually caused by Candida species

The following statements are true of oral anticoagulants except: A. They interfere with an early step in the synthesis of clotting factors B. Irrespective of the dose administered, their anticoagulant effect has a latency of onset of 1-3 days C. Their dose is adjusted by repeated measurement of prothrombin time D. They are contraindicated during pregnancy

Description : The following statements are true of oral anticoagulants except: A. They interfere with an early step in the synthesis of clotting factors B. Irrespective of the dose administered, their ... dose is adjusted by repeated measurement of prothrombin time D. They are contraindicated during pregnancy

Last Answer : A. They interfere with an early step in the synthesis of clotting factors

CHOOSE THE MOST APPROPRIATE RESPONSE 41.1 Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by coadministering: A. Antacids B. Tetracyclines C. Phosphates D. Ascorbic acid

Description : CHOOSE THE MOST APPROPRIATE RESPONSE 41.1 Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by coadministering: A. Antacids B. Tetracyclines C. Phosphates D. Ascorbic acid

Last Answer : D. Ascorbic acid

Select the oral iron preparation which does not impart metallic taste and has good oral tolerability despite high iron content but whose efficacy in treating iron deficiency anaemia has been questioned: A. Iron hydroxy polymaltose B. Ferrous succinate C. Ferrous fumarate D. Ferrous gluconate

Description : Select the oral iron preparation which does not impart metallic taste and has good oral tolerability despite high iron content but whose efficacy in treating iron deficiency anaemia has been questioned: A. Iron hydroxy polymaltose B. Ferrous succinate C. Ferrous fumarate D. Ferrous gluconate

Last Answer : A. Iron hydroxy polymaltose

The most dependable emetic used to expel ingested poisons is: A. Intramuscular emetine B. Oral syrup ipecacuanha C. Intramuscular apomorphine D. Oral bromocriptine

Description : The most dependable emetic used to expel ingested poisons is: A. Intramuscular emetine B. Oral syrup ipecacuanha C. Intramuscular apomorphine D. Oral bromocriptine

Last Answer : C. Intramuscular apomorphine

The preferred drug for suppressing febrile convulsions is: A. Intramuscular phenobarbitone B. Intravenous phenytoin C. Rectal diazepam D. Oral sodium valproate

Description : The preferred drug for suppressing febrile convulsions is: A. Intramuscular phenobarbitone B. Intravenous phenytoin C. Rectal diazepam D. Oral sodium valproate

Last Answer : C. Rectal diazepam

For the treatment of hypogonadism and impotence, testosterone/dihydrotestosterone can be administered by the following route/routes: A. Oral B. Intramuscular C. Transdermal D. Both 'B' and 'C

Description : For the treatment of hypogonadism and impotence, testosterone/dihydrotestosterone can be administered by the following route/routes: A. Oral B. Intramuscular C. Transdermal D. Both 'B' and 'C

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Choose the correct statement about severity of side effects to oral iron medication: A. Ferrous salts are better tolerated than ferric salts B. Complex organic salts of iron are better tolerated than inorganic salts C. Liquid preparations of iron are better tolerated than tablets D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication

Description : Choose the correct statement about severity of side effects to oral iron medication: A. Ferrous salts are better tolerated than ferric salts B. Complex organic salts of iron are better ... better tolerated than tablets D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication

Last Answer : D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication

Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It is an orally active gold compound

A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated: A. Epoetin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxine

Description : A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated: A. Epoetin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxine

Last Answer : A. Epoetin

Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Description : Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Last Answer : C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex

Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools

Choose the correct statement about bambuterol: A. It is an orally acting bronchodilator B. It is a prodrug C. It inhibits the enzyme pseudocholinesterase D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement about bambuterol: A. It is an orally acting bronchodilator B. It is a prodrug C. It inhibits the enzyme pseudocholinesterase D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Description : Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Last Answer : A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

Iron therapy is ineffective in which of the following conditions: (A) Chronic blood loss (B) Inadequate Fe intake (C) Hypochromic anaemia of pregnancy (D) Thalassaemia minor

Description : Iron therapy is ineffective in which of the following conditions: (A) Chronic blood loss (B) Inadequate Fe intake (C) Hypochromic anaemia of pregnancy (D) Thalassaemia minor

Last Answer : Answer : D

A 10 year old child suffers from exercise induced asthma: Which is the most suitable first line drug for regular prophylactic therapy ? (a) Oral salbutamol (b) Oral theophylline (c) Inhaled sodium cromoglycate (d) Inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate

Description : A 10 year old child suffers from exercise induced asthma: Which is the most suitable first line drug for regular prophylactic therapy ? (a) Oral salbutamol (b) Oral theophylline (c) Inhaled sodium cromoglycate (d) Inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate

Last Answer : Ans: C

Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Description : Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability

The side effect which primarily limits acceptability of oral iron therapy is: A. Epigastric pain and bowel upset B. Black stools C. Staining of teeth D. Metallic taste

Description : The side effect which primarily limits acceptability of oral iron therapy is: A. Epigastric pain and bowel upset B. Black stools C. Staining of teeth D. Metallic taste

Last Answer : A. Epigastric pain and bowel upset

Iron deficiency causes (A) Normocytic anaemia (B) Microcytic anaemia (C) Megaloblastic anaemia (D) Pernicious anaemia

Description : Iron deficiency causes (A) Normocytic anaemia (B) Microcytic anaemia (C) Megaloblastic anaemia (D) Pernicious anaemia

Last Answer : Answer : B

The following statement about lithium is not correct: A. It has a sedative action in normal individuals B. It controls mania, but takes 1–2 weeks to produce the effect C. It has prophylactic effect in recurrent unipolar depression D. It can be combined with tricyclic antidepressants for refractory cases of major depression

Description : The following statement about lithium is not correct: A. It has a sedative action in normal individuals B. It controls mania, but takes 1-2 weeks to produce the effect C. ... recurrent unipolar depression D. It can be combined with tricyclic antidepressants for refractory cases of major depression

Last Answer : A. It has a sedative action in normal individuals

Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramuscular injection of drugs: A. Is more painful B. Produces faster response C. Is unsuitable for depot preparations D. Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction

Description : Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramuscular injection of drugs: A. Is more painful B. Produces faster response C. Is unsuitable for depot preparations D. Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction

Last Answer : B. Produces faster response

Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramuscular injection of drugs: A. Is more painful B. Produces faster response C. Is unsuitable for depot preparations D. Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction

Description : Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramuscular injection of drugs: A. Is more painful B. Produces faster response C. Is unsuitable for depot preparations D. Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction

Last Answer : B. Produces faster response

Glyceryl trinitrate is administratered by all of the following routes except (a) Oral (b) Sublingual (c) Intramuscular (d) Intravenous

Description : Glyceryl trinitrate is administratered by all of the following routes except (a) Oral (b) Sublingual (c) Intramuscular (d) Intravenous

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which of the following is true? Hypochromic anaemia is not due to iron deficiency except (A) Serum ‘Fe’ is high (B) Normal/low transferrin (C) Stainable iron in bone marrow (D) Iron therapy is affective

Description : Which of the following is true? Hypochromic anaemia is not due to iron deficiency except (A) Serum ‘Fe’ is high (B) Normal/low transferrin (C) Stainable iron in bone marrow (D) Iron therapy is affective

Last Answer : Answer : D

Choose the correct statement about codeine: A. It has a lower oral: parenteral activity ratio than morphine B. It is devoid of abuse liability C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine D. It is a more potent antitussive than morphine

Description : Choose the correct statement about codeine: A. It has a lower oral: parenteral activity ratio than morphine B. It is devoid of abuse liability C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine D. It is a more potent antitussive than morphine

Last Answer : C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine

Long-term hydralazine therapy is likely to cause: A. Gynaecomastia B. Thrombocytopenia C. Haemolytic anaemia D. Lupus erythematosus

Description : Long-term hydralazine therapy is likely to cause: A. Gynaecomastia B. Thrombocytopenia C. Haemolytic anaemia D. Lupus erythematosus

Last Answer : D. Lupus erythematosus

he following is true of desmopressin except: A. It is nonselective V1 and V2 receptor agonist B. It is more potent and longer acting than arginine vasopressin (AVP) C. It is preferred over AVP for treatment of diabetes insipidus D. It can be administered orally

Description : Che following is true of desmopressin except: A. It is nonselective V1 and V2 receptor agonist B. It is more potent and longer acting than arginine vasopressin (AVP) C. It is preferred over AVP for treatment of diabetes insipidus D. It can be administered orally

Last Answer : A. It is nonselective V1 and V2 receptor agonist

Transdermal estradiol differs from oral estrogen therapy in that it: A. Causes less induction of hepatic synthesis of clotting factors B. Does not inhibit FSH secretion C. Does not affect vaginal cytology D. All of the above are correct

Description : Transdermal estradiol differs from oral estrogen therapy in that it: A. Causes less induction of hepatic synthesis of clotting factors B. Does not inhibit FSH secretion C. Does not affect vaginal cytology D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Causes less induction of hepatic synthesis of clotting factors

Choose the correct statement about amantadine: A. It is an antimetabolite used for viral infections B. It prevents penetration of the virus into the host cell C. It is used to protect high risk subjects during an influenza A2 epidemic D. Concurrent administration of amantadine prevents antibody response to influenza vaccine

Description : Choose the correct statement about amantadine: A. It is an antimetabolite used for viral infections B. It prevents penetration of the virus into the host cell C. It is used ... during an influenza A2 epidemic D. Concurrent administration of amantadine prevents antibody response to influenza vaccine

Last Answer : C. It is used to protect high risk subjects during an influenza A2 epidemic

Choose the correct statement(s) about cefepime: A. It is a 4th generation cephalosporin B. It is active against many bacteria resistant to 3rd generation celphalosporins C. It is active by the oral route D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about cefepime: A. It is a 4th generation cephalosporin B. It is active against many bacteria resistant to 3rd generation celphalosporins C. It is active by the oral route D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Description : Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Last Answer : B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomitin

Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers blood glucose in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Description : Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers ... 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Last Answer : B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus

An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally B. Penicillin 250 mg orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment

Description : An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram ... orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment

Last Answer : A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally

The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

Description : The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

Last Answer : C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis

A man has an Escherichia coli bacteremia with a low-grade fever (101.6°F). Appropriate management of his fever would be (a) Give acetaminophen 650 mg orally every 4 hours (b) Give aspirin 650 mg orally every 4 hours (c) Give alternating doses of aspirin and acetaminophen every 4 hours (d) Withhold antipyretics, and use the fever curve to monitor his response to antibiotic therapy (e) Use tepid water baths to reduce the fever

Description : A man has an Escherichia coli bacteremia with a low-grade fever (101.6°F). Appropriate management of his fever would be (a) Give acetaminophen 650 mg orally every 4 hours (b) Give aspirin 650 ... fever curve to monitor his response to antibiotic therapy (e) Use tepid water baths to reduce the fever

Last Answer : Ans: D

What is true of acid control therapy with H2 blockers: A. It generally heals duodenal ulcers faster than gastric ulcers B. It checks bleeding in case of bleeding peptic ulcer C. It prevents gastroesophageal reflux D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : What is true of acid control therapy with H2 blockers: A. It generally heals duodenal ulcers faster than gastric ulcers B. It checks bleeding in case of bleeding peptic ulcer C. It prevents gastroesophageal reflux D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : A. It generally heals duodenal ulcers faster than gastric ulcers

Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is started C. It is used as an alternative to corticosteroids D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is ... D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Last Answer : D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Choose the drug that can be used orally for intestinal amoebiasis, intravaginally for trichomonas vaginitis and topically for dermatophytosis: A. Quiniodochlor B. Furazolidone C. Ornidazole D. Hamycin

Description : Choose the drug that can be used orally for intestinal amoebiasis, intravaginally for trichomonas vaginitis and topically for dermatophytosis: A. Quiniodochlor B. Furazolidone C. Ornidazole D. Hamycin

Last Answer : A. Quiniodochlor

Choose the orally active third generation cephalosporin having good activity against gram positive cocci as well: A. Cefdinir B. Ceftazidime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftizoxime

Description : Choose the orally active third generation cephalosporin having good activity against gram positive cocci as well: A. Cefdinir B. Ceftazidime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftizoxime

Last Answer : A. Cefdinir