The uses of sodium/potassium iodide include the
following except:
A. Preoperative preparation of Grave’s disease
patient
B. Prophylaxis of endemic goiter
C. As antiseptic
D. As expectorant

1 Answer

Answer :

C. As antiseptic

Related questions

Description : Serum TSH levels are high in most cases of: A. Myxoedema B. Grave’s disease C. Carcinoma thyroid D. Toxic nodular goiter

Last Answer : A. Increases vascularity

Description : .19 Serum TSH levels are high in most cases of: A. Myxoedema B. Grave’s disease C. Carcinoma thyroid D. Toxic nodular goiter

Last Answer : A. Myxoedema

Description : Which of the salt in the mineral mixture or food can prevent the subject from goiter D A. Cobalt Chloride B. Sodium Chloride C. Iron Sulphate D. Potassium Iodide

Last Answer : Potassium Iodide

Description : The following expectorant acts both directly on the airway mucosa as well as reflexly: A. Potassium iodide B. Guaiphenesin C. Terpin hydrate D. Bromhexine

Last Answer : A. Potassium iodide

Description : Triiodothyronine is preferred over thyroxine in the treatment of: A. Endemic goiter B. Cretinism C. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid D. Myxoedema coma

Last Answer : D. Myxoedema coma

Description : The aim of iodine therapy before subtotal thyroidectomy in Grave’s disease is: A. To render the patient euthyroid B. To restore the iodine content of the thyroid gland C. To inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine into triiodothyronine D. To reduce friability and vascularity of the thyroid gland

Last Answer : D. To reduce friability and vascularity of the thyroid gland

Description : Indications for the use of antiplatelet drugs include the following except: A. Secondary prophylaxis of myocardial infarction B. Unstable angina pectoris C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Stroke prevention in patients with transient ischaemic attacks

Last Answer : C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Description : Indications of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Attention deficit-hyperactive disorder in children B. Mania C. Prophylaxis of migraine D. Panic disorder

Last Answer : B. Mania

Description : All the following statements about endemic goiter are true except (A) It occurs in areas where soil and water have low iodine content (B) It leads to enlargement of thyroid gland (C) It results ultimately in hyperthyroidism (D) It can be prevented by consumption of iodised salt

Last Answer : Answer : C

Description : The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is: A. Benzathine penicillin B. Sodium penicillin C. Potassium penicillin D. Procaine penicillin

Last Answer : A. Benzathine penicillin

Description : Which one of the following is used in the preparation of antiseptic solution? (1) Potassium nitrate (2) Iodine (3) Iodine chloride (4) Potassium chloride

Last Answer : (2) Iodine Explanation: Antiseptics are chemical agents that slow or stop the growth of micro-organisms (germs) on external surfaces of the body and help prevent infections.

Description : Wounds are classified according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound classifications? a. A clean-contaminated wound would ... all clean-contaminated and contaminated wounds and selectively in patients involving a clean wound

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Wounds are classified under three classes according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination: 1) clean (no viscus is entered; e.g., herniorrhaphy); 2) clean- ... tenet involves cases in which a prosthetic material may be used (artificial joint, heart valve, tissue patch)

Description : The following thyroid inhibitor does not produce goiter when given in over dose: A. Propyl thiouracil B. Carbimazole C. Radioactive iodine D. Sodium thiocyanat

Last Answer : C. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid

Description : The following thyroid inhibitor does not produce goiter when given in over dose: A. Propyl thiouracil B. Carbimazole C. Radioactive iodine D. Sodium thiocyanate

Last Answer : C. Radioactive iodine

Description : Thyroxine therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Euthyroid status with raised TSH level B. Diffuse nontoxic goiter C. Nonfunctional thyroid nodule D. Benign functioning thyroid nodule

Last Answer : C. Nonfunctional thyroid nodule

Description : Radioactive iodine is the treatment of choice for the following category of thyrotoxic patients: A. Children B. Young adults with recent oneset of Grave’s disease C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease D. Pregnant women

Last Answer : C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease

Description : The most important drawback of radioactive iodine treatment of Grave’s disease is: A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients B. Marked side effect for 1-2 weeks after treatment C. High cost D. Permanent cure cannot be achieved

Last Answer : A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients

Description : Choose the correct statement about carbimazole: A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therapy B. Control of thyrotoxic symptoms with carbimazole is accompanied by ... leads to thyroid escape' D. It mitigates thyrotoxic symptoms without lowering serum thyroxine levels

Last Answer : A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therap

Description : Endemic goiter is a state of

Last Answer : Endemic goiter is a state of A. Increased thyroid function B. Normal thyroid function C. Decreased thyroid function D. Moderate thyroid function

Description : The metabolic actions of adrenaline include the following except: A. Glycogenolysis in liver and muscle B. Inhibition of neoglucogenesis in liver C. Lipolysis in adipose tissue D. Release of potassium from liver followed by its uptake

Last Answer : B. Inhibition of neoglucogenesis in liver

Description : The metabolic actions of adrenaline include the following except: A. Glycogenolysis in liver and muscle B. Inhibition of neoglucogenesis in liver C. Lipolysis in adipose tissue D. Release of potassium from liver followed by its uptake

Last Answer : B. Inhibition of neoglucogenesis in liver

Description : Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills ... acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Last Answer : B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria

Description : The patient whom you are about to treat states that he has Von Willebrand's disease. Which one of the following preoperative haematological analyses may reflect this disease: A. Bleeding time and ... C. Bleeding time and factor X level D. Platelet count E. Thromboplastin generation time

Last Answer : A. Bleeding time and factor VIII level ptt also prolonged decreased platelet count

Description : Antimicrobial prophylaxis is regularly warranted in the following: A. Chronic obstructive lung disease patients B. Neonates delivered by forceps C. Anastomotic intestinal surgery D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Anastomotic intestinal surgery

Description : A dark purple compound used as an antiseptic and disinfectant is (a) Potassium nitrate (b) Sodium thiosulphate (c) Potassium permanganate (d) Calcium phosphate

Last Answer : Ans:(c)

Description : Thyrotropin exerts the following actions on the thyroid gland except: A. Increases vascularity B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin C. Induces hyperplasia and hypertrophy D. Promotes iodide trappin

Last Answer : B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin

Description : 16.18 Thyrotropin exerts the following actions on the thyroid gland except: A. Increases vascularity B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin C. Induces hyperplasia and hypertrophy D. Promotes iodide trapping

Last Answer : B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin

Description : Drugs effective in bipolar illness include the following except: A. Olanzapine B. Diazepam C. Sodium valproate D. Lamotrigine

Last Answer : B. Diazepam

Description : Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood ... . E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

Last Answer : Answer: D DISCUSSION: Each 100-mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose causes a fall in serum sodium concentration of approximately 2 mEq. per liter. Excess serum glucose ... correction of the patient's associated acidosis produce movement of potassium ions into the intracellular compartment

Description : Which of the following is used to iodise common salt? (1) Potassium iodide (2) Iodine (3) Potassium iodate (4) Sodium iodide

Last Answer : (3) Potassium iodate Explanation: Iodized salt (also spelled iodised salt) is table salt mixed with a minute amount of various salts of the element iodine. Table salt with iodide salt slowly loses its ... salt can be iodised by spraying it with a potassium iodate solution. 60 ml of potassium iodate.

Description : Which of the following is used to iodise common salf ? (1) Potassium iodide (2) Iodine (3) Potassium iodate (4) Sodium iodide

Last Answer : Potassium iodate

Description : A child with rampant caries taking medicine with high quantity of sugar; the best way to help preventing caries is, A. Change sugar to sorbitol sweetener B. Report the patient is having expectorant C. Give him the syrup during sleep time D. Give him inverted sugar

Last Answer : A. Change sugar to sorbitol sweetener

Description : Health benefits afforded by the combined estrogenprogestin oral contraceptive pill include the following except: A. Reduced menstrual blood loss B. Lower risk of fibrocystic breast disease C. Lower risk of myocardial infarction D. Lower risk of endometrial carcinoma

Last Answer : . Lower risk of myocardial infarction

Description : Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient's weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit ... feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Last Answer : Answer: a Most patients undergoing elective operations are adequately nourished. Unless the patient has suffered significant preoperative malnutrition, characterized by weight loss greater than ... gastrointestinal surgery, this technique would not appear indicated in the patient described above

Description : A number of prospective clinical trials have addressed the role of total parenteral nutrition in the cancer patient. The results have been somewhat conflicting. Which of the following statement(s) ... hepatectomy for hepatoma d. TPN is of no benefit in patients undergoing bone marrow transplant

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Numerous clinical trials have failed to yield a consensus with regard to the efficacy of TPN in cancer patients. In 1991, a multicenter VA cooperative trial demonstrated ... patients receiving bone marrow transplantation has also been shown to be a valuable component of overall care

Description : Answer: e The role of nutritional support in the cancer patient remains an important component of overall therapy. Preoperative nutritional support should be given only to those patients who ... of bowel rest; this atrophy is not reversed by currently available total parenteral nutrition solutions

Last Answer : Which of the following hormones can be expected to be released as part of the stress response? a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b. Aldosterone c. Insulin d. Epinephrine nswer: a, b, d ... This hormone has the exact opposite effect of insulin, which promotes glucose storage and uptake by the cells

Description : Regarding the surgical patient, which of the following terms refers to the period of time that constitutes the surgical experience? a) Perioperative phase Perioperative period includes the preoperative, ... care unit and ends after a follow-up evaluation in the clinical setting or home.

Last Answer : a) Perioperative phase Perioperative period includes the preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative phases.

Description : A 65 years-old patient needs extraction of 44; he has taken insulin in the morning. What preoperative advice you should give: A. Take more sugar B. Maintain normal diet C. Antibiotic 2 hours before D. Medication increases preoperatively

Last Answer : B. Maintain normal diet

Description : The following is true of quinine: A. It has a longer elimination half-life than chloroquine B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria C. It is not active against P. vivax D. It should not be used along with sulfa-pyrimethamine

Last Answer : B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria

Description : An adult male living in nonmalarious area has to visit an area where chloroquine resistant P. falciparum is prevalent. He is intolerant to mefloquine and his G6PD status is unknown. Select the ... you will prescribe for prophylaxis of malaria: A. Primaquine B. Doxycycline C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine

Last Answer : B. Doxycycline

Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for: A. Agranulocytosis patients B. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever D. Treatment of anthrax

Last Answer : C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever

Description : Select the sulfonamide drug which is active against Pseudomonas and is used by topical application for prophylaxis of infection in burn cases: A. Sulfadiazine B. Silver sulfadiazine C. Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole

Last Answer : B. Silver sulfadiazine

Description : Surgical antibiotic prophylaxis for clean elective surgery started just before operation should be continued for: A. One day B. Three days C. Five days D. Seven days

Last Answer : A. One day

Description : Folinic acid is specifically indicated for: A. Prophylaxis of neural tube defect in the offspring of women receiving anticonvulsant medication B. Counteracting toxicity of high dose methotrexate C. Pernicious anaemia D. Anaemia associated with renal failure

Last Answer : C. Pernicious anaemia

Description : The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine

Last Answer : B. Verapami

Description : A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and ... Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Last Answer : D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Description : The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris is: A. Verapamil B. Diltiazem C. Flunarizine D. Amlodipine

Last Answer : C. Flunarizine

Description : Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment ... resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

Last Answer : C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases

Description : The preparation of penicillin preferred for treatment of syphilis is: A. Sodium penicillin G B. Benzathine penicillin G C. Penicillin V D. Ampicillin

Last Answer : B. Benzathine penicillin G

Description : Prolonged lithium therapy can cause: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Goiter C. Parkinsonism D. Gout

Last Answer : B. Goiter