The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is: A. Benzathine penicillin B. Sodium penicillin C. Potassium penicillin D. Procaine penicillin

The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of
action is:
A. Benzathine penicillin
B. Sodium penicillin
C. Potassium penicillin
D. Procaine penicillin
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Benzathine penicillin
by

Related questions

The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is (a) Benzathine penicillin (b) Sodium penicillin (c) Potassium penicillin (d) Procaine penicillin

Description : The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is (a) Benzathine penicillin (b) Sodium penicillin (c) Potassium penicillin (d) Procaine penicillin

Last Answer : Ans: A

The preparation of penicillin preferred for treatment of syphilis is: A. Sodium penicillin G B. Benzathine penicillin G C. Penicillin V D. Ampicillin

Description : The preparation of penicillin preferred for treatment of syphilis is: A. Sodium penicillin G B. Benzathine penicillin G C. Penicillin V D. Ampicillin

Last Answer : B. Benzathine penicillin G

Which of the following statements is true for lignocaine: A. It is an ester-linked local anaesthetic B. It is not likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with procaine C. It has a shorter duration of action than procaine D. It is not a surface anaesthetic

Description : Which of the following statements is true for lignocaine: A. It is an ester-linked local anaesthetic B. It is not likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with procaine C. It has a shorter duration of action than procaine D. It is not a surface anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. It is not likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with procaine

Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for: A. Agranulocytosis patients B. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever D. Treatment of anthrax

Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for: A. Agranulocytosis patients B. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever D. Treatment of anthrax

Last Answer : C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever

The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its: A. Narrow spectrum of activity B. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction C. Short duration of action D. Neurotoxicity

Description : The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its: A. Narrow spectrum of activity B. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction C. Short duration of action D. Neurotoxicity

Last Answer : B. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction

Which of the following is not a semisynthetic penicillin: A. Procaine penicillin B. Ampicillin C. Cloxacillin D. Carbenicillin

Description : Which of the following is not a semisynthetic penicillin: A. Procaine penicillin B. Ampicillin C. Cloxacillin D. Carbenicillin

Last Answer : A. Procaine penicillin

The uses of sodium/potassium iodide include the following except: A. Preoperative preparation of Grave’s disease patient B. Prophylaxis of endemic goiter C. As antiseptic D. As expectorant

Description : The uses of sodium/potassium iodide include the following except: A. Preoperative preparation of Grave’s disease patient B. Prophylaxis of endemic goiter C. As antiseptic D. As expectorant

Last Answer : C. As antiseptic

Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for (a) Agranulocytosis patients (b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects (c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever (d) Treatment of anthrax

Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for (a) Agranulocytosis patients (b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects (c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever (d) Treatment of anthrax

Last Answer : Ans: C

The characteristic feature(s) of penicillin G is/are: A. It is unstable in aqueous solution B. Its antibacterial action is unaffected by pus and tissue fluids C. It is equally active against resting and multiplying bacteria D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Description : The characteristic feature(s) of penicillin G is/are: A. It is unstable in aqueous solution B. Its antibacterial action is unaffected by pus and tissue fluids C. It is equally active against resting and multiplying bacteria D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its (a) Narrow spectrum of activity (b) Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction (c) Short duration of action (d) Neurotoxicity

Description : The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its (a) Narrow spectrum of activity (b) Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction (c) Short duration of action (d) Neurotoxicity

Last Answer : Ans: B

Tolerance does not develop to the vasodilator action of sodium nitroprusside while it develops to glyceryl trinitrate because: A. Intact sod. nitroprusside molecule acts like nitric oxide B. Enzymes which generate nitric oxide from nitroprusside are different C. Sod. nitroprusside has a long duration of action D. Sod. nitroprusside has additional K+ channel opening action

Description : Tolerance does not develop to the vasodilator action of sodium nitroprusside while it develops to glyceryl trinitrate because: A. Intact sod. nitroprusside molecule acts like nitric oxide B. Enzymes which ... a long duration of action D. Sod. nitroprusside has additional K+ channel opening action

Last Answer : B. Enzymes which generate nitric oxide from nitroprusside are different

Which of the following is not a semisynthetic penicillin ? (a) Procaine penicillin (b) Ampicillin (c) Cloxacillin (d) Carbenicillin

Description : Which of the following is not a semisynthetic penicillin ? (a) Procaine penicillin (b) Ampicillin (c) Cloxacillin (d) Carbenicillin

Last Answer : Ans: A

The following local anaesthetic is poorly water soluble, PABA derivative and primarily used for anorectal lesions, wounds and ulcers: A. Benzocaine B. Dibucaine C. Procaine D. Benoxinate

Description : The following local anaesthetic is poorly water soluble, PABA derivative and primarily used for anorectal lesions, wounds and ulcers: A. Benzocaine B. Dibucaine C. Procaine D. Benoxinate

Last Answer : A. Benzocaine

The local anaesthetic having high cardiotoxic and arrhythmogenic potential is: A. Lignocaine B. Procaine C. Bupivacaine D. Ropivacaine

Description : The local anaesthetic having high cardiotoxic and arrhythmogenic potential is: A. Lignocaine B. Procaine C. Bupivacaine D. Ropivacaine

Last Answer : C. Bupivacaine

Which of the following is a poor surface anaesthetic: A. Procaine B. Lignocaine C. Tetracaine D. Benoxinate

Description : Which of the following is a poor surface anaesthetic: A. Procaine B. Lignocaine C. Tetracaine D. Benoxinate

Last Answer : A. Procaine

The following local anaesthetic raises BP instead of tending to cause a fall: A. Cocaine B. Dibucaine C. Lignocaine D. Procaine

Description : The following local anaesthetic raises BP instead of tending to cause a fall: A. Cocaine B. Dibucaine C. Lignocaine D. Procaine

Last Answer : A. Cocaine

The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Description : The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Last Answer : C. Morphine

The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Description : The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Last Answer : C. Morphine

Intradermal test for penicillin sensitivity should be performed by injecting the following quantity of sodium benzyl penicillin: A. 10 U B. 100 U C. 1000 U D. 5000 U

Description : Intradermal test for penicillin sensitivity should be performed by injecting the following quantity of sodium benzyl penicillin: A. 10 U B. 100 U C. 1000 U D. 5000 U

Last Answer : A. 10 U

Select the antibiotic which is equally effective whether injected 8 hourly or 24 hourly, provided the total daily dose remains the same: A. Gentamicin B. Sod. penicillin G C. Cefazolin D. Vancomycin

Description : Select the antibiotic which is equally effective whether injected 8 hourly or 24 hourly, provided the total daily dose remains the same: A. Gentamicin B. Sod. penicillin G C. Cefazolin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : A. Gentamicin

Features of phenoxymethyl penicillin include the following: A. It is acid stable and orally active B. Its antibacterial spectrum is similar to that of benzyl penicillin C. It is used for less serious penicillin G sensitive infections D. All of the above are correct

Description : Features of phenoxymethyl penicillin include the following: A. It is acid stable and orally active B. Its antibacterial spectrum is similar to that of benzyl penicillin C. It is used for less serious penicillin G sensitive infections D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Though penicillin G kills the causative organism, it is only of adjuvant value to other measures in: A. Diphtheria B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Syphilis D. Anthrax

Description : Though penicillin G kills the causative organism, it is only of adjuvant value to other measures in: A. Diphtheria B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Syphilis D. Anthrax

Last Answer : A. Diphtheria

Indicate the disease in which penicillin G continues to be used as first line treatment in all cases (unless contraindicated), because the causative organism has not developed resistance so far: A. Gonorrhoea B. Syphilis C. Staphylococcal abscess D. Haemophillus influenzae meningiti

Description : Indicate the disease in which penicillin G continues to be used as first line treatment in all cases (unless contraindicated), because the causative organism has not developed resistance so far: A. Gonorrhoea B. Syphilis C. Staphylococcal abscess D. Haemophillus influenzae meningiti

Last Answer : B. Syphilis

If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then: A. He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected B. He can be given ampicillin safely C. He can be given oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely D. All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him

Description : If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then: A. He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected ... oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely D. All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him

Last Answer : D. All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him

he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability due to high first pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood–CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed

Description : he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability ... pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood-CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed

Last Answer : B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules

The following antibiotic accentuates the nuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium: A. Streptomycin B. Erythromycin C. Penicillin G D. Chloramphenicol

Description : The following antibiotic accentuates the nuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium: A. Streptomycin B. Erythromycin C. Penicillin G D. Chloramphenicol

Last Answer : A. Streptomycin

Which of the following constitutes ‘drug abuse’: A. Physician prescribed use of penicillin G for the cure of viral fever B. Self administration of aspirin to relieve headache C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria D. All of the above

Description : Which of the following constitutes ‘drug abuse’: A. Physician prescribed use of penicillin G for the cure of viral fever B. Self administration of aspirin to relieve headache C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria

The plasma half life of penicillin-G is longer in the new born because their: A. Plasma protein level is low B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature C. Glomerular filtration rate is low D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Description : The plasma half life of penicillin-G is longer in the new born because their: A. Plasma protein level is low B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature C. Glomerular filtration rate is low D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Last Answer : D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Choose the antimalarial drug effective against multidrug resistant P. falciparum, which rapidly terminates an attack of malarial fever, but has a short duration of action, so that recrudescence is common: A. Proguanil B. Mefloquine C. Amodiaquine D. Artemisinin

Description : Choose the antimalarial drug effective against multidrug resistant P. falciparum, which rapidly terminates an attack of malarial fever, but has a short duration of action, so that recrudescence is common: A. Proguanil B. Mefloquine C. Amodiaquine D. Artemisinin

Last Answer : D. Artemisinin

Compared to erythromycin, azithromycin has: A. Extended antimicrobial spectrum B. Better gastric tolerance C. Longer duration of action D. All of the above

Description : Compared to erythromycin, azithromycin has: A. Extended antimicrobial spectrum B. Better gastric tolerance C. Longer duration of action D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Description : Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Which of the following drugs depresses automaticity of SA node as well as ectopic foci, abbreviates action potential duration of Purkinje fibres, and slows atrioventricular conduction: A. Propranolol B. Lignocaine C. Procainamide D. Bretylium

Description : Which of the following drugs depresses automaticity of SA node as well as ectopic foci, abbreviates action potential duration of Purkinje fibres, and slows atrioventricular conduction: A. Propranolol B. Lignocaine C. Procainamide D. Bretylium

Last Answer : A. Propranolol

The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of lignocaine is: A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci B. Prolongation of action potential duration C. Prolongation of effective refractory period D. Depression of membrane responsiveness

Description : The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of lignocaine is: A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci B. Prolongation of action potential duration C. Prolongation of effective refractory period D. Depression of membrane responsiveness

Last Answer : A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci

The electrophysiological effects of digitalis on Purkinje fibres include the following except: A. Enhancement of resting membrane potential B. Decrease in the slope of phase-0 depolarization C. Increase in the rate of phase-4 depolarization D. Abbreviation of action potential duration

Description : The electrophysiological effects of digitalis on Purkinje fibres include the following except: A. Enhancement of resting membrane potential B. Decrease in the slope of phase-0 depolarization C. Increase in the rate of phase-4 depolarization D. Abbreviation of action potential duration

Last Answer : A. Enhancement of resting membrane potential

Enalapril differs from captopril in the following features except: A. It is dose to dose more potent B. Its oral absorption is not affected by food in stomach C. It acts more rapidly D. It has longer duration of action

Description : Enalapril differs from captopril in the following features except: A. It is dose to dose more potent B. Its oral absorption is not affected by food in stomach C. It acts more rapidly D. It has longer duration of action

Last Answer : D. Lisinopri

Enalapril differs from captopril in that: A. It blocks angiotensin II receptors B. It does not produce cough as a side effect C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension D. It has a shorter duration of action

Description : Enalapril differs from captopril in that: A. It blocks angiotensin II receptors B. It does not produce cough as a side effect C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension D. It has a shorter duration of action

Last Answer : C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension

The following is not true of naltrexone: A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphine B. It is active orally C. It has a long duration of action D. It can reduce craving for alcohol in chronic alcoholics

Description : The following is not true of naltrexone: A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphine B. It is active orally C. It has a long duration of action D. It can reduce craving for alcohol in chronic alcoholics

Last Answer : A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphin

Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Description : Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Last Answer : A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action

Compared to other antipsychotic drugs, the distinctive feature of penfluridol is: A. Very long duration of action B. Weak dopamine D2 blocking activity C. Lack of extrapyramidal side effects D. Additional 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity

Description : Compared to other antipsychotic drugs, the distinctive feature of penfluridol is: A. Very long duration of action B. Weak dopamine D2 blocking activity C. Lack of extrapyramidal side effects D. Additional 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity

Last Answer : A. Very long duration of action

In the treatment of parkinsonism, bromocriptine differs from levodopa in the following respects except: A. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite B. It has a longer duration of action C. It activates dopamine D2 receptors, with little/antagonistic action on D1 receptors D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effect

Description : In the treatment of parkinsonism, bromocriptine differs from levodopa in the following respects except: A. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite B. It has a longer duration of ... with little/antagonistic action on D1 receptors D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effect

Last Answer : D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effects

Low concentration of bupivacaine is preferred for spinal / epidural obstetric analgesia because: A. It has a longer duration of action B. It can produce sensory blockade without paralysing abdominal muscles C. It distributes more in maternal tissues so that less reaches the foetus D. All of the above are correct

Description : Low concentration of bupivacaine is preferred for spinal / epidural obstetric analgesia because: A. It has a longer duration of action B. It can produce sensory blockade without paralysing abdominal muscles C. ... in maternal tissues so that less reaches the foetus D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

The local anaesthetics having amide linkage differ from those having ester linkage in that the amidelinked local anaesthetics: A. Are not surface anaesthetics B. Have a shorter duration of action C. Are degraded in the plasma D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesthetic

Description : The local anaesthetics having amide linkage differ from those having ester linkage in that the amidelinked local anaesthetics: A. Are not surface anaesthetics B. Have a shorter duration of action C. Are degraded in the plasma D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesthetic

Last Answer : D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesth

The duration of action of insulin-zinc suspension (lente insulin) is: A. 2–4 hours B. 8–10 hours C. 20–24 hours D. 30–36 hours

Description : The duration of action of insulin-zinc suspension (lente insulin) is: A. 2–4 hours B. 8–10 hours C. 20–24 hours D. 30–36 hours

Last Answer : 20–24 hours

Ganglion blocking drugs are no longer used in therapeutics because: A. They have few and weak pharmacological actions B. They produce many side effects C. They are inactive by oral route D. They have short duration of action

Description : Ganglion blocking drugs are no longer used in therapeutics because: A. They have few and weak pharmacological actions B. They produce many side effects C. They are inactive by oral route D. They have short duration of action

Last Answer : A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own

Ganglion blocking drugs are no longer used in therapeutics because: A. They have few and weak pharmacological actions B. They produce many side effects C. They are inactive by oral route D. They have short duration of action

Description : Ganglion blocking drugs are no longer used in therapeutics because: A. They have few and weak pharmacological actions B. They produce many side effects C. They are inactive by oral route D. They have short duration of action

Last Answer : B. They produce many side effects

Select the drug which is a potassium channel opener as well as nitric oxide donor: A. Diazoxide B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Minoxidil D. Nicorandil

Description : Select the drug which is a potassium channel opener as well as nitric oxide donor: A. Diazoxide B. Sodium nitroprusside C. Minoxidil D. Nicorandil

Last Answer : D. Nicorandil

component of the management of moderately severe diabetic ketoacidosis: A. Insulin B. Intravenous fluids C. Potassium chloride D. Sodium bicarbonate

Description : component of the management of moderately severe diabetic ketoacidosis: A. Insulin B. Intravenous fluids C. Potassium chloride D. Sodium bicarbonate

Last Answer : D. Sodium bicarbonate

Which of the following measures is not an essential component of the management of moderately severe diabetic ketoacidosis: A. Insulin B. Intravenous fluids C. Potassium chloride D. Sodium bicarbonate

Description : Which of the following measures is not an essential component of the management of moderately severe diabetic ketoacidosis: A. Insulin B. Intravenous fluids C. Potassium chloride D. Sodium bicarbonate

Last Answer : . Sodium bicarbonate

Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently diminishes the diuretic action C. Potassium chloride in tablet formulation is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b) and (c) Ans: D 68. In heart, potassium channels determine (a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b ... a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D