Surgical antibiotic prophylaxis for clean elective surgery started just before operation should be continued for: A. One day B. Three days C. Five days D. Seven days

Surgical antibiotic prophylaxis for clean elective surgery started just before operation should be continued for:
A. One day
B. Three days
C. Five days
D. Seven days
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. One day
by

Related questions

Wounds are classified according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound classifications? a. A clean-contaminated wound would be that associated with an elective colon resection with adequate mechanical and antibiotic bowel preparation b. A contaminated wound would include a resection of obstructed bowel with gross spillage of intestinal contents c. In a clean wound, no viscus is entered d. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be administered for all clean-contaminated and contaminated wounds and selectively in patients involving a clean wound

Description : Wounds are classified according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound classifications? a. A clean-contaminated wound would ... all clean-contaminated and contaminated wounds and selectively in patients involving a clean wound

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Wounds are classified under three classes according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination: 1) clean (no viscus is entered; e.g., herniorrhaphy); 2) clean- ... tenet involves cases in which a prosthetic material may be used (artificial joint, heart valve, tissue patch)

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given several days prior to elective surgery b. The half-life of factor VIII concentrates is less than 24 hours c. A dose of 40–50 IU/kg of factor VIII concentrate should be given prior to the planned surgical procedure d. Factor VIII concentration administration should be given for the first 24 hours after surgery but may then be stopped if no abnormal bleeding has been observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

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Last Answer : Answer: b, c, e Although the half-life of factor VIII is 2.9 days in normal individuals, the half-life of factor VIII concentrates is 9 to l8 hours. Levels of 80% to ... infection in the hemophilia population. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

The use of prophylactic antibiotics has become commonplace. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the prophylactic use of antibiotics? a. The appropriate use of prophylactic antibiotics must include the initiation of the agent prior to the surgical procedure b. Continuing the antibiotic into the postoperative period has led to improved results in antibiotic prophylaxis c. The prophylactic administration of broad-spectrum agents (third-generation cephalosporins) has been shown to be particularly advantageous d. The topical use of antimicrobial agents is of no advantage in the prophylactic setting

Description : The use of prophylactic antibiotics has become commonplace. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the prophylactic use of antibiotics? a. The appropriate use of prophylactic ... d. The topical use of antimicrobial agents is of no advantage in the prophylactic setting

Last Answer : Answer: a Intravenous administration of an antibiotic is clearly indicated for patients undergoing clean contaminated operations. These antibiotics should be administered prior to surgery ... of antimicrobial agents is equivalent to the administration of intravenous antimicrobial agent antibiotics

A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and do not give any anticonvulsant drug B. Continuous phenobarbitone prophylaxis till the age of 10 years C. Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

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Last Answer : D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined “hot zone” for a period of a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were inhaled, bacteria will be killed immediately upon release from spores. Those who have symptoms of fever, cough, headache, chills, and especially evidence of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.

Description : Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined hot zone for a period of a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should ... . Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic

Last Answer : a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were ... of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.

Which is LEAST likely to cause bleeding after surgical operation: A. Antibiotic therapy B. Poor surgical techniques C. Aspirin D. Codeine

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Last Answer : D. Codeine

No surgical operation should be performed during the following stage of anaesthesia: A. Stage I B. Stage II C. Stage III, plane 1 D. Stage III, plane 3

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Last Answer : B. Stage II

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

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Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed abdominal distention and an ashen gray appearance. Which is the most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin

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Last Answer : B. Chloramphenico

The following is true of quinine: A. It has a longer elimination half-life than chloroquine B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria C. It is not active against P. vivax D. It should not be used along with sulfa-pyrimethamine

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Last Answer : B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria

An adult male living in nonmalarious area has to visit an area where chloroquine resistant P. falciparum is prevalent. He is intolerant to mefloquine and his G6PD status is unknown. Select the drug that you will prescribe for prophylaxis of malaria: A. Primaquine B. Doxycycline C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine

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Last Answer : B. Doxycycline

Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for: A. Agranulocytosis patients B. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever D. Treatment of anthrax

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Last Answer : C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever

Select the sulfonamide drug which is active against Pseudomonas and is used by topical application for prophylaxis of infection in burn cases: A. Sulfadiazine B. Silver sulfadiazine C. Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole

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Antimicrobial prophylaxis is regularly warranted in the following: A. Chronic obstructive lung disease patients B. Neonates delivered by forceps C. Anastomotic intestinal surgery D. All of the above

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Indications for the use of antiplatelet drugs include the following except: A. Secondary prophylaxis of myocardial infarction B. Unstable angina pectoris C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Stroke prevention in patients with transient ischaemic attacks

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The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine

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Indications of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Attention deficit-hyperactive disorder in children B. Mania C. Prophylaxis of migraine D. Panic disorder

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The uses of sodium/potassium iodide include the following except: A. Preoperative preparation of Grave’s disease patient B. Prophylaxis of endemic goiter C. As antiseptic D. As expectorant

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Last Answer : C. As antiseptic

The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris is: A. Verapamil B. Diltiazem C. Flunarizine D. Amlodipine

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Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment of migraine attacks C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

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Last Answer : C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases

Select the macrolide antibiotic that can be given once daily for 3 days for empirical treatment of ear-nosethroat, respiratory and genital infections: A. Erythromycin B. Azithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Clarithromycin

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Seven men, five women and eight children were given as assignment of distributing 2000 books to students in a school over a period of three days. All of them distributed books on the first day. One of the second day two women and three children remained absent and on the third day three men and five children remained absent. If the ratio of the number of books distributed in a day by a man, a woman and a child was 5 : 4 : 2 respectively, a total of approximately how many books were distributed on the second day? a) 1000 b) 800 c) 650 d) 900 e) Cannot be determined

Description : Seven men, five women and eight children were given as assignment of distributing 2000 books to students in a school over a period of three days. All of them distributed books on the first day. One of the second ... distributed on the second day? a) 1000 b) 800 c) 650 d) 900 e) Cannot be determined

Last Answer : Answer: C Sol. Let the books distributed by man, a woman and a child be 5x, 4x and 2x respectively. ∴ No. of books distributed in 1st day = 7 5x+5 4x+8 2x=71x No. of books distributed in 2nd day =7 ... 2x=46x 71x + 57x + 46x = 2000, x = 2000/174 57x=2000/174 57= 655 650 (Approx)

A patient treated with capsule oxytetracycline 500 mg 6 hourly complained of epigastric pain. Which of the following measures will you recommend to counteract the side effect: A. Take the capsules with milk B. Take the capsules with meals C. Take aluminium hydroxide gel 15 minutes before the capsules D. None of the above measures is suitable. Change the antibiotic if pain is distressing

Description : A patient treated with capsule oxytetracycline 500 mg 6 hourly complained of epigastric pain. Which of the following measures will you recommend to counteract the side effect: A. Take the capsules ... capsules D. None of the above measures is suitable. Change the antibiotic if pain is distressing

Last Answer : D. None of the above measures is suitable. Change the antibiotic if pain is distressing

In contrast to a patient undergoing an elective operation, which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning a patient who has suffered a multiple trauma? a. Basal metabolic rates are similar b. The patient is highly sensitive to insulin c. Utilization of the amino acids, glutamine and alanine, is similar to their composition in skeletal muscle d. Fat and protein stores are rapidly depleted

Description : In contrast to a patient undergoing an elective operation, which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning a patient who has suffered a multiple trauma? a. Basal metabolic rates are ... is similar to their composition in skeletal muscle d. Fat and protein stores are rapidly depleted

Last Answer : Answer: b, d The degree of hypermetabolism is generally related to the severity of injury. Patients with long-bone fractures have a 15-25% increase in metabolic rate, whereas metabolic ... in injured subjects, if unfed, severely injured patients rapidly deplete their fat and protein stores

The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient c. A minimum of two weeks of antibiotic therapy is indicated d. The addition of appropriate antibiotic therapy has made surgical therapy unnecessary in such cases e. Either a single agent or combination therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

Description : The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient ... therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

Last Answer : Answer: a, e The primary treatment for a perforated viscus is surgical, however antimicrobial therapy is an extremely important adjunct. Empiric antibiotic therapy for secondary ... whereas longer periods are indicated for immunosuppressed patients and with patients with extensive contamination

As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the following is true? a- Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection. b- Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve. c- Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduce post operative swelling. d- Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root. e- The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Description : As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the following is true? a- Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection. b- Raising a lingual ... e- The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Last Answer : b- Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve.

A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by, a. Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal spontaneously. b.Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants. c. Curettage and dressing of the defect. d. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure. e. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.

Description : A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by, a. Further review and reassurance since it will most ... Excision of the fistula and surgical closure. e. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.

Last Answer : d. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure.

As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?**CHECK A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve ADC M07 C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling D. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Description : As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?**CHECK A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising ... root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Last Answer : C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling

A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by,** A. Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal spontaneously B. Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants C. Curettage and dressing of the defect D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure E. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.

Description : A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by,** A. Further review and reassurance since it will most ... . Excision of the fistula and surgical closure E. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.

Last Answer : D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure

The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated doses C. The same regimen which is palliative for a large solid tumour may be curative after surgical removal of the tumour D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

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Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells

General anaesthetics produce immobility in response to painful surgical stimuli by acting primarily at the: A. Motor cortex B. Basal ganglia C. Thalamus D. Spinal cord

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Last Answer : D. Spinal cord

Select the drug which administered orally causes cervical ripening in pregnant women to facilitate surgical abortion or induction of labour: A. Mifepristone B. Raloxifene C. Natural progesterone D. Levonorgestre

Description : Select the drug which administered orally causes cervical ripening in pregnant women to facilitate surgical abortion or induction of labour: A. Mifepristone B. Raloxifene C. Natural progesterone D. Levonorgestre

Last Answer : A. Mifepristone

While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Last Answer : C. Mephentermine

While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

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While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

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What'd make a great card to send to a motorcyclist who's just had a surgical operation?

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Acute apical abscess-emergency treatment: A. Open and drain for two days B. Antibiotic and analgesic C. Clean and Ledermix

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Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole

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Indicate the antifungal antibiotic which is used intravenously for systemic mycosis: A. Griseofulvin B. Nystatin C. Amphotericin B D. Hamycin

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Select the macrolide antibiotic having clinically useful antileprotic activity: A. Azithromycin B. Clarithromycin C. Erythromycin D. Roxithromycin

Description : Select the macrolide antibiotic having clinically useful antileprotic activity: A. Azithromycin B. Clarithromycin C. Erythromycin D. Roxithromycin

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‘Red man syndrome’ has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of the following antibiotic: A. Vancomycin B. Clindamycin C. Cefoperazone D. Piperacillin

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The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity

Description : The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity

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Description : The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin

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Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Vancomycin D. Clindamycin

Description : Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Vancomycin D. Clindamycin

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The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

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Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias

A single oral dose of the following antibiotic is curative in most patients of nonspecific urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis: A. Doxycycline B. Azithromycin C. Erythromycin D. Cotrimoxazole

Description : A single oral dose of the following antibiotic is curative in most patients of nonspecific urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis: A. Doxycycline B. Azithromycin C. Erythromycin D. Cotrimoxazole

Last Answer : B. Azithromycin

The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients: A. Clindamycin B. Clarithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Erythromycin

Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients: A. Clindamycin B. Clarithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Erythromycin

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Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin

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