Description : The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is: a. QDM b. QDR c. QTE d. QNH
Last Answer : b. QDR
Description : The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is: a. QDR b. QFE c. QUJ d. QTE
Last Answer : d. QTE
Description : The Q code on which height is based on: a. QNH b. QFF c. QFE d. QUJ
Last Answer : c. QFE
Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is: a. QNE b. QFF c. QFE d. QNH
Last Answer : a. QNE
Description : An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot: a. Range 45nm and QTE 060 from ... QTE 317 from the center of the island d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island
Last Answer : d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island
Description : The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY
Last Answer : c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20”
Description : QFE is 1000 hPa with an airfield elevation of 200m AMSL. What is QNH? (use 8m per hPa) a. 975 hPa b. 1025 hPa c. 1008 hPa d. 992 hPa
Last Answer : b. 1025 hPa
Description : How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature
Last Answer : a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA
Description : What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 50ft below MSL? a. QFE = QNH b. QFE < QNH c. QFE > QNH d. There is no clear relationship
Last Answer : c. QFE > QNH
Description : True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110
Last Answer : b. FL140
Description : An aircraft climbs from an airfield, elevation 1500ft, QNH 1023mb, to FL75. What height does the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1mb=30ft) a. 6600 ft b. 7800 ft c. 6300 ft d. 6000 ft
Last Answer : c. 6300 ft
Description : The Q code on which height is based on: a. QNH b. QFF c. QFE
Description : In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is _____, the bearing signal is ______ and the direction of rotation of the bearing signal is ______. a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise b. AM, FM, clockwise c. FM, AM, anti-clockwise d. FM, AM, clockwise
Last Answer : a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise
Description : How will an oncoming aircraft on a line of constant bearing appear visually? a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision ... relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes well clear
Last Answer : a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision
Description : A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: a. An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information b. An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such ... An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR
Last Answer : c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR
Description : An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300nm, if the ground station is situated 2,500ft amsl, which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely to be made? a. 190ft b. 1,378ft c. 36,100ft d. 84,100ft
Last Answer : c. 36,100ft
Description : The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that: a. The DME is unserviceable b. The DME is trying to lock onto range c. The DME is trying to lock onto frequency d. The DME is receiving no response from the ground station
Last Answer : b. The DME is trying to lock onto range
Description : Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF? a. Selective availability, coastal refraction, night effect b. Night effect, quadrantal error, lane slip c. Mountain effect, station interference, static interference d. Selective availability, coastal refraction, quadrantal error
Last Answer : c. Mountain effect, station interference, static interference
Description : The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be: a. TOWER b. CLEARANCE c. GROUND d. APRON
Last Answer : c. GROUND
Description : If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should: a. Try another appropriate frequency b. Start transmitting blind c. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome d. Transmit words twice
Last Answer : a. Try another appropriate frequency
Description : When reporting a frequency the use of the word “DECIMAL” can be omitted: a. When there is no likelihood of confusion b. After the initial call c. Never d. By the ground station only
Last Answer : c. Never
Description : An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign ... , callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain's number, rank and name
Last Answer : a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading
Description : The callsign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be: a. CLEARANCE b. GROUND c. DELIVERY d. PRESTO
Last Answer : c. DELIVERY
Description : At the magnetic equator: a. Dip is zero b. Variation is zero c. Deviation is zero d. The isogonal is an agonic line
Last Answer : a. Dip is zero
Description : The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero: a. Are magnetic b. Are compass c. Are relative d. Must have deviation applied before being used
Last Answer : a. Are magnetic
Description : The magnetic heading reference unit has a precision rate of: a. 1°/min b. 2°/min c. 5°/min d. 3°/min
Last Answer : b. 2°/min
Description : The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means: a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers c. Becoming from 1100UTC rain showers d. Becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers
Last Answer : b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers
Description : The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates: a. Loss of communications b. Distress c. Urgency d. Hijacking
Last Answer : a. Loss of communications
Description : When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code
Last Answer : d. Read back mode and code
Description : Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an aircraft in distress? a. Code 7500 b. Code 7700 c. Code 7000 d. Code 7600
Last Answer : b. Code 7700
Description : DMT is a modulation technique that combineselements of _______ and _______. A) FDM; TDM B) QDM; QAM C) FDM; QAM D) PSK; FSK
Last Answer : FDM; QAM
Description : . The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY
Last Answer : c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20
Description : If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases
Last Answer : d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases
Description : The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
Last Answer : d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
Description : If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment
Last Answer : b. An increased rate of roll
Description : If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same
Last Answer : a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper
Description : An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1
Last Answer : b. 15:1
Description : What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack b. The same true ... c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack d. A constant angle of attack and true airspeed
Last Answer : a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack
Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed
Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed
Description : To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust
Last Answer : b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force
Description : Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind d. Increasing headwind or tailwind
Last Answer : c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind
Description : What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement ... increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack
Last Answer : b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack
Description : An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt
Last Answer : c. 99kt
Description : A yaw damper: a. Increases rudder effectiveness b. Must be disengaged before making a turn c. Augments stability d. Increases the rate of yaw
Last Answer : c. Augments stability
Description : If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered c. The lift would decrease d. The acceleration would increase
Last Answer : b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered
Description : What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed ... shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude
Last Answer : c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power
Description : If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach
Last Answer : b. increased
Description : t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed
Last Answer : a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster