Description : An example of a general call is: a. STOP IMMEDIATELY I SAY AGAIN STOP IMMEDAITELY b. BRAKING ACTION UNRELIABLE c. ALL STATIONS
Last Answer : c. ALL STATIONS
Description : The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that braking action: a. Poor b. Medium to poor c. Medium d. Slippery
Last Answer : a. Poor
Description : On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received
Last Answer : a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately
Description : At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10mph, the anti-skid braking system is: a. Inoperative b. Operative c. Operative only on the nosewheel brakes d. Operative only on the main wheel brakes
Last Answer : a. Inoperative
Description : The phrase used to separate portions of a message is: a. BREAK BREAK b. I SAY AGAIN c. BREAK d. UMM
Last Answer : c. BREAK
Description : If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use the phrase: a. WORDS TWICE b. I REPEAT c. I SAY AGAIN d. DITTO
Last Answer : c. I SAY AGAIN
Description : If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater ... below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately
Last Answer : b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude
Description : After an act of unlawful interference a report is to be made. When and to whom? a. Within 10 days and to the Authority of the State of Registry b. Immediately and to the Authority of ... d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator
Last Answer : d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator
Description : In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional ... a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers
Last Answer : d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers
Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a ... he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete
Last Answer : d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete
Description : The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: a. Respond in alphabetic order b. Respond in numerical order c. Give no response d. Request a repeat of the message
Last Answer : c. Give no response
Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed
Last Answer : b. Descend
Description : If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain
Last Answer : c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible
Description : Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. ... four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights
Last Answer : b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF
Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach
Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA
Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
Description : The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is: a. Consider the transmission as not sent b. Proceed with your message c. Wait and I will call you d. Hold your present position
Last Answer : c. Wait and I will call you
Description : When reporting a frequency the use of the word “DECIMAL” can be omitted: a. When there is no likelihood of confusion b. After the initial call c. Never d. By the ground station only
Last Answer : c. Never
Description : In recovery from a spin: a. Ailerons should be kept neutral b. Airspeed increases c. Ailerons used to stop the spin d. Rudder and ailerons used against the direction of spin direction
Last Answer : a. Ailerons should be kept neutral
Description : When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake
Last Answer : d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake
Description : What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of ... that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
Last Answer : d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
Description : Which of the following is not true of sulfonamides ? (a) They are primarily metabolized by acetylation (b) They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are ... in the urinary tract (d) Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : The following is true of sulfonamides except: A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble B. They are primarily metabolized by acetylation ... in the urinary tract D. Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections
Last Answer : A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble
Description : The phrase to use when you want to say “yes” is: a. AFFIRMATIVE b. ROGER c. WILCO d. AFFIRM
Last Answer : d. AFFIRM
Description : The term “DISREGARD” means: a. Ignore b. Cancel the last clearance c. You have not been cleared d. Pay no attention to what I say
Last Answer : a. Ignore
Description : The FMC navigational database can be accessed by the pilots: a. To update the database b. To read information only c. To change information between the 28 day updates d. To change the information to meet the sector requirements
Last Answer : b. To read information only
Description : What is the coldest time of the day? a. 1hr before sunrise b. 1/2 hr before sunrise c. At exact moment of sunrise d. 1/2 hour after sunrise
Last Answer : d. 1/2 hour after sunrise
Description : VOLMETs are updated a. Every hour b. 4 times a day c. 2 times a day d. Every half hour
Last Answer : d. Every half hour
Description : Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) cannot be used for flights other than those executed frequently on the same days of the following weeks and: a. For at least 20 occasions or every day over a period of ... or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive days d. For at least 20 occasions
Last Answer : c. For at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive days
Description : During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls
Last Answer : b. The importance of crew coordination
Description : The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that the braking action is:
Last Answer : poor
Description : If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases
Last Answer : d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases
Description : The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
Last Answer : d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
Description : If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment
Last Answer : b. An increased rate of roll
Description : If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same
Last Answer : a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper
Description : An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1
Last Answer : b. 15:1
Description : What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack b. The same true ... c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack d. A constant angle of attack and true airspeed
Last Answer : a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack
Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed
Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed
Description : To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust
Last Answer : b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force
Description : Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind d. Increasing headwind or tailwind
Last Answer : c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind
Description : What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement ... increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack
Last Answer : b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack
Description : An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt
Last Answer : c. 99kt
Description : A yaw damper: a. Increases rudder effectiveness b. Must be disengaged before making a turn c. Augments stability d. Increases the rate of yaw
Last Answer : c. Augments stability
Description : If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered c. The lift would decrease d. The acceleration would increase
Last Answer : b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered
Description : What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed ... shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude
Last Answer : c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power
Description : If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach
Last Answer : b. increased
Description : t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed
Last Answer : a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster
Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes
Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM
Description : The control surface which gives longitudinal control is: a. The rudder b. The ailerons c. The elevators d. The flaps
Last Answer : c. The elevators