The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC “X-CD CHANGE FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7” is: a. 118.7 b. CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD c. TO STEPHENVILLE X-CD d. 118.7 X-CD

The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC “X-CD CHANGE  FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7” is:  
a. 118.7  
b. CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD  
c. TO STEPHENVILLE X-CD  
d. 118.7 X-CD
by

1 Answer

Answer :

d. 118.7 X-CD
by

Related questions

The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC “X-CD CHANGE FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7” is: a. 118.7 b. CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD c. TO STEPHENVILLE X-CD d. 118.7 X-CD

Description : The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC “X-CD CHANGE FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7” is: a. 118.7 b. CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD c. TO STEPHENVILLE X-CD d. 118.7 X-CD

Last Answer : d. 118.7 X-CD

The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Description : The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Last Answer : c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency

The correct readback of the frequency 123.725 on 25 kHz spacing is: a. 123.725 b. 123.7 c. 12372 d. 123.72

Description : The correct readback of the frequency 123.725 on 25 kHz spacing is: a. 123.725 b. 123.7 c. 12372 d. 123.72

Last Answer : a. 123.725

The term “CORRECTION” is used when: a. The readback of a message is incorrect b. The readback of a message is correct c. The message has to be deleted d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version isH..

Description : The term “CORRECTION” is used when: a. The readback of a message is incorrect b. The readback of a message is correct c. The message has to be deleted d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version isH..

Last Answer : d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version isH..

The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: a. Respond in alphabetic order b. Respond in numerical order c. Give no response d. Request a repeat of the message

Description : The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: a. Respond in alphabetic order b. Respond in numerical order c. Give no response d. Request a repeat of the message

Last Answer : c. Give no response

The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure

Description : The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure

Last Answer : d. Examine a system or procedure

An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? a. When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 800m b. When all 3 RVRs are greater than 800m c. When the met viz is greater than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Description : An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? ... than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Last Answer : d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

The frequency on which ATIS can be found is: a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency b. Discrete VHF only c. VOR frequency only d. Any ATC frequency

Description : The frequency on which ATIS can be found is: a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency b. Discrete VHF only c. VOR frequency only d. Any ATC frequency

Last Answer : a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency

The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is: a. 3 to 30 MHz b. 88 to 108 MHz c. 108.0 to 139.95 MHz d. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz

Description : The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is: a. 3 to 30 MHz b. 88 to 108 MHz c. 108.0 to 139.95 MHz d. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz

Last Answer : d. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz

In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services? a. ATC b. The Commander c. The local constabulary d. The Operations Dispatcher

Description : In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services? a. ATC b. The Commander c. The local constabulary d. The Operations Dispatcher

Last Answer : a. ATC

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC b. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s proximity c. RAs must never be disregarded d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Description : On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Last Answer : a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately

ATC will only report wind as gusting if: a. Gust speed exceeds mean speed by >15kts b. Gusts to over 25kts c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts d. Gusts to under 25kts

Description : ATC will only report wind as gusting if: a. Gust speed exceeds mean speed by >15kts b. Gusts to over 25kts c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts d. Gusts to under 25kts

Last Answer : c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts

You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Last Answer : c. 30 mins

The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should: a. Carry out a go around b. Continue with 360 degree turns c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only d. Reverse the direction of the turn

Description : The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should: a. Carry out a go around b. Continue with 360 degree turns c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only d. Reverse the direction of the turn

Last Answer : c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only

The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that braking action: a. Poor b. Medium to poor c. Medium d. Slippery

Description : The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that braking action: a. Poor b. Medium to poor c. Medium d. Slippery

Last Answer : a. Poor

If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Description : If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Last Answer : b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission

Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

Description : Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance

If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Description : If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must ... d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance

Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless of the direction from which B approaches b. Aircraft B, regardless of the direction from which A approaches c. Aircraft A, if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Description : Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless ... , if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Last Answer : d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft

Description : The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft

Last Answer : a. Pilot in command

The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC

Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless: a. They operate outside controlled airspace b. If asked by ATC c. Within controlled airspace d. They operate a transponder with mode C

Description : Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless: a. They operate outside controlled airspace b. If asked by ATC c. Within controlled airspace d. They operate a transponder with mode C

Last Answer : b. If asked by ATC

The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative

When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance c. He/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Description : When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if ... appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Last Answer : b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance

If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind c. Ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Description : A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Last Answer : d. 2%

Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Last Answer : c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility

The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Description : The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Last Answer : c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency

What effect does aspect ratio have on induced drag? a. Increased aspect ratio increases induced drag b. Increased aspect ratio reduces induced drag c. Changing aspect ratio has no effect on induced drag d. Induced drag will equal 1:3 x aspect ratio/chord ratio

Description : What effect does aspect ratio have on induced drag? a. Increased aspect ratio increases induced drag b. Increased aspect ratio reduces induced drag c. Changing aspect ratio has no effect on induced drag d. Induced drag will equal 1:3 x aspect ratio/chord ratio

Last Answer : b. Increased aspect ratio reduces induced drag

The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be: a. TOWER b. CLEARANCE c. GROUND d. APRON

Description : The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be: a. TOWER b. CLEARANCE c. GROUND d. APRON

Last Answer : c. GROUND

An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Description : An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Last Answer : b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable

The correct readback of the frequency 123.725 on 25 kHz spacing is: a. 123.725 b. 123.7 c. 12372 d. 123.72

Description : The correct readback of the frequency 123.725 on 25 kHz spacing is: a. 123.725 b. 123.7 c. 12372 d. 123.72

Last Answer : a. 123.725

The term “CORRECTION” is used when: a. The readback of a message is incorrect b. The readback of a message is correct c. The message has to be deleted d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version isH..

Description : The term “CORRECTION” is used when: a. The readback of a message is incorrect b. The readback of a message is correct c. The message has to be deleted d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version isH..

Last Answer : d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version isH..

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

Description : By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

Last Answer : c. Lift, airspeed and drag

Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack? a. A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing and decrease drag b. An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing and decrease drag c. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag d. An increase in angle of attack will decrease the lift coefficient

Description : Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack? a. A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing and decrease drag b. An increase in angle of attack will ... of attack will increase drag d. An increase in angle of attack will decrease the lift coefficient

Last Answer : c. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag

Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & 3 only are correct b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct

Description : Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & ... 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct

Last Answer : b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct

When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded? a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude b. During ground pressure testing c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs d. When changing to manual operation

Description : When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded? a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude b. During ground pressure testing c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs d. When changing to manual operation

Last Answer : a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude

When making a blind transmission you should: a. Transmit the message twice b. Transmit each word twice c. Repeat the message on 121.5 MHz d. Wait for visual signals

Description : When making a blind transmission you should: a. Transmit the message twice b. Transmit each word twice c. Repeat the message on 121.5 MHz d. Wait for visual signals

Last Answer : a. Transmit the message twice

The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY

Description : The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY

Last Answer : c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20”

The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is: a. Consider the transmission as not sent b. Proceed with your message c. Wait and I will call you d. Hold your present position

Description : The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is: a. Consider the transmission as not sent b. Proceed with your message c. Wait and I will call you d. Hold your present position

Last Answer : c. Wait and I will call you

The message “READABILITY 3” means: a. Readable now and then b. Unreadable c. Readable d. Readable but with difficulty

Description : The message “READABILITY 3” means: a. Readable now and then b. Unreadable c. Readable d. Readable but with difficulty

Last Answer : d. Readable but with difficulty

An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign, position, route, destination, endurance c. Name of station addressed, callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain’s number, rank and name

Description : An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign ... , callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain's number, rank and name

Last Answer : a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading

The phrase used to separate portions of a message is: a. BREAK BREAK b. I SAY AGAIN c. BREAK d. UMM

Description : The phrase used to separate portions of a message is: a. BREAK BREAK b. I SAY AGAIN c. BREAK d. UMM

Last Answer : c. BREAK

If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use the phrase: a. WORDS TWICE b. I REPEAT c. I SAY AGAIN d. DITTO

Description : If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use the phrase: a. WORDS TWICE b. I REPEAT c. I SAY AGAIN d. DITTO

Last Answer : c. I SAY AGAIN

Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be: a. VFR/IFR b. SMOOTH/TURBULENT c. NOT BAD/SO SO d. VMC/IMC

Description : Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be: a. VFR/IFR b. SMOOTH/TURBULENT c. NOT BAD/SO SO d. VMC/IMC

Last Answer : d. VMC/IMC

A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability to fly c. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Description : A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ... suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Last Answer : a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance

Which of the following would give the greatest gliding performance? a. Flight at VMD b. Flight at 1.32VMD c. Flight at the best CL/CD ratio d. Flight close to CL MAX

Description : Which of the following would give the greatest gliding performance? a. Flight at VMD b. Flight at 1.32VMD c. Flight at the best CL/CD ratio d. Flight close to CL MAX

Last Answer : d. Flight close to CL MAX