The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY

The priority of the message “LINE UP” is:  
a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM”  
b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND”  
c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20”  d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY
by

1 Answer

Answer :

c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20”
by

Related questions

. The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY

Description : . The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY

Last Answer : c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20

You see a double white cross in a signal square, what does this mean? a. Glider flying in progress b. Tow ropes and banners may be dropped c. Runway unfit for aircraft movement d. Aerodrome unfit for aircraft movement

Description : You see a double white cross in a signal square, what does this mean? a. Glider flying in progress b. Tow ropes and banners may be dropped c. Runway unfit for aircraft movement d. Aerodrome unfit for aircraft movement

Last Answer : a. Glider flying in progress

The correct reply to the instruction “HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY” is: a. WILCO b. ROGER c. HOLDING SHORT d. UNDERSTOOD

Description : The correct reply to the instruction “HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY” is: a. WILCO b. ROGER c. HOLDING SHORT d. UNDERSTOOD

Last Answer : c. HOLDING SHORT

An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? a. When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 800m b. When all 3 RVRs are greater than 800m c. When the met viz is greater than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Description : An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? ... than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Last Answer : d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is: a. QDM b. QDR c. QTE d. QNH

Description : The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is: a. QDM b. QDR c. QTE d. QNH

Last Answer : b. QDR

What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF

Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF

Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach

Where a light or medium category aeroplane is taking off behind a heavy category aeroplane on the same runway and from the same point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

Description : Where a light or medium category aeroplane is taking off behind a heavy category aeroplane on the same runway and from the same point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

Last Answer : b. 2

Wind-rose diagram is useful in deciding on the orientation of : (a) Taxiway (b) Hanger (c) Apron (d) Runway

Description : Wind-rose diagram is useful in deciding on the orientation of : (a) Taxiway (b) Hanger (c) Apron (d) Runway

Last Answer : (d) Runway

During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line

Description : During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line

Last Answer : c. Within 15° of runway centre-line

Which has priority to land? a. A hospital flight b. An emergency c. A military flight d. A VIP flight

Description : Which has priority to land? a. A hospital flight b. An emergency c. A military flight d. A VIP flight

Last Answer : b. An emergency

The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: a. Respond in alphabetic order b. Respond in numerical order c. Give no response d. Request a repeat of the message

Description : The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: a. Respond in alphabetic order b. Respond in numerical order c. Give no response d. Request a repeat of the message

Last Answer : c. Give no response

Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for runway 16 1500m, temperature -3°C, vertical visibility 100m b. Meteorological visibility 200ft, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500m, vertical visibility 100ft, fog with hoar frost c. Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800m, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500m d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

Last Answer : d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure? a. Take-off is not possible under these conditions b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind c. Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the ... throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind

In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway? a. GAFOR b. TAF c. METAR d. SIGMET

Description : In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway? a. GAFOR b. TAF c. METAR d. SIGMET

Last Answer : c. METAR

When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

Last Answer : c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP

An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Last Answer : d. All of the above

When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Description : When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Last Answer : d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Description : What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Last Answer : a. From take-off to overhead destination

During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls

Description : During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls

Last Answer : b. The importance of crew coordination

How will an oncoming aircraft on a line of constant bearing appear visually? a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision b. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes close by c. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes above d. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes well clear

Description : How will an oncoming aircraft on a line of constant bearing appear visually? a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision ... relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes well clear

Last Answer : a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision

With regard to RVR and Met vis: a. Met vis is usually less than RVR b. Met vis is usually greater than RVR c. RVR is usually less than met vis d. Met vis and RVR are usually the same

Description : With regard to RVR and Met vis: a. Met vis is usually less than RVR b. Met vis is usually greater than RVR c. RVR is usually less than met vis d. Met vis and RVR are usually the same

Last Answer : a. Met vis is usually less than RVR

What are the VMC limits for Class B airspace? a. 8km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface b. 8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud c. 5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud d. The same as Class D

Description : What are the VMC limits for Class B airspace? a. 8km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface b. 8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from ... . 5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud d. The same as Class D

Last Answer : d. The same as Class D

At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft

An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude over a warm airmass. The altimeter reading will be: a. Correct b. Greater than the real altitude c. Less than the real altitude d. Oscillating around the correct altitude

Description : An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude over a warm airmass. The altimeter reading will be: a. Correct b. Greater than the real altitude c. Less than the real altitude d. Oscillating around the correct altitude

Last Answer : c. Less than the real altitude

On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Description : On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Last Answer : a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately

If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Description : If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must ... d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance

When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance c. He/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Description : When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if ... appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Last Answer : b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance

Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what and what should you do? a. Marked temperature drop; apply full power b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power c. Incipient engine failure (ignore instruments); lower the nose to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Description : Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what ... to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Last Answer : b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power

You have been intercepted in the airspace of a foreign contracting state. What is the signal for ‘clear to proceed’ from the intercepting aircraft? a. Rocking wings b. Flashing lights c. Cut across track d. Breaking turn up and left

Description : You have been intercepted in the airspace of a foreign contracting state. What is the signal for ‘clear to proceed’ from the intercepting aircraft? a. Rocking wings b. Flashing lights c. Cut across track d. Breaking turn up and left

Last Answer : d. Breaking turn up and left

You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Last Answer : c. 30 mins

The most dangerous form of airframe icing is: a. Clear ice b. Hoar frost c. Dry ice d. Rime ice

Description : The most dangerous form of airframe icing is: a. Clear ice b. Hoar frost c. Dry ice d. Rime ice

Last Answer : a. Clear ice

What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 50ft below MSL? a. QFE = QNH b. QFE < QNH c. QFE > QNH d. There is no clear relationship

Description : What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 50ft below MSL? a. QFE = QNH b. QFE < QNH c. QFE > QNH d. There is no clear relationship

Last Answer : c. QFE > QNH

What are the key points of a good briefing? a. Individual, understood and simple b. Individual, clear and simple c. Individual, understood and short d. Simple, clear, understood and individual

Description : What are the key points of a good briefing? a. Individual, understood and simple b. Individual, clear and simple c. Individual, understood and short d. Simple, clear, understood and individual

Last Answer : c. Individual, understood and short

A marshaller crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outward and then moves the arms outwards. What does the signal indicate? a. Clear to move forward b. Brakes off c. Remove chocks d. Clear to close all engines

Description : A marshaller crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outward and then moves the arms outwards. What does the signal indicate? a. Clear to move forward b. Brakes off c. Remove chocks d. Clear to close all engines

Last Answer : c. Remove chocks

An aircraft flying over the sea between 4500ft and 9000ft AMSL and outside CAS. To continue under VFR the meteorological conditions must remain: a. 2000ft horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 8km b. 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km c. 1500m horizontally and 1000m vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km d. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface with visibility of 5km

Description : An aircraft flying over the sea between 4500ft and 9000ft AMSL and outside CAS. To continue under VFR the meteorological conditions must remain: a. 2000ft horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with ... visibility of 5km d. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface with visibility of 5km

Last Answer : b. 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km

When making a blind transmission you should: a. Transmit the message twice b. Transmit each word twice c. Repeat the message on 121.5 MHz d. Wait for visual signals

Description : When making a blind transmission you should: a. Transmit the message twice b. Transmit each word twice c. Repeat the message on 121.5 MHz d. Wait for visual signals

Last Answer : a. Transmit the message twice

The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is: a. Consider the transmission as not sent b. Proceed with your message c. Wait and I will call you d. Hold your present position

Description : The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is: a. Consider the transmission as not sent b. Proceed with your message c. Wait and I will call you d. Hold your present position

Last Answer : c. Wait and I will call you

The message “READABILITY 3” means: a. Readable now and then b. Unreadable c. Readable d. Readable but with difficulty

Description : The message “READABILITY 3” means: a. Readable now and then b. Unreadable c. Readable d. Readable but with difficulty

Last Answer : d. Readable but with difficulty

The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC “X-CD CHANGE FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7” is: a. 118.7 b. CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD c. TO STEPHENVILLE X-CD d. 118.7 X-CD

Description : The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC “X-CD CHANGE FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7” is: a. 118.7 b. CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD c. TO STEPHENVILLE X-CD d. 118.7 X-CD

Last Answer : d. 118.7 X-CD

An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign, position, route, destination, endurance c. Name of station addressed, callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain’s number, rank and name

Description : An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign ... , callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain's number, rank and name

Last Answer : a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading

The phrase used to separate portions of a message is: a. BREAK BREAK b. I SAY AGAIN c. BREAK d. UMM

Description : The phrase used to separate portions of a message is: a. BREAK BREAK b. I SAY AGAIN c. BREAK d. UMM

Last Answer : c. BREAK

The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Description : The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Last Answer : c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency

If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use the phrase: a. WORDS TWICE b. I REPEAT c. I SAY AGAIN d. DITTO

Description : If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use the phrase: a. WORDS TWICE b. I REPEAT c. I SAY AGAIN d. DITTO

Last Answer : c. I SAY AGAIN

Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be: a. VFR/IFR b. SMOOTH/TURBULENT c. NOT BAD/SO SO d. VMC/IMC

Description : Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be: a. VFR/IFR b. SMOOTH/TURBULENT c. NOT BAD/SO SO d. VMC/IMC

Last Answer : d. VMC/IMC

The term “CORRECTION” is used when: a. The readback of a message is incorrect b. The readback of a message is correct c. The message has to be deleted d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version isH..

Description : The term “CORRECTION” is used when: a. The readback of a message is incorrect b. The readback of a message is correct c. The message has to be deleted d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version isH..

Last Answer : d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version isH..

The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure

Description : The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure

Last Answer : d. Examine a system or procedure

A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability to fly c. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Description : A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ... suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Last Answer : a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance

How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability

You see a double white cross in a signal square, what does this mean? a. Glider flying in progress b. Tow ropes and banners may be dropped c. Runway unfit for aircraft movement d. Aerodrome unfit for aircraft movement

Description : You see a double white cross in a signal square, what does this mean? a. Glider flying in progress b. Tow ropes and banners may be dropped c. Runway unfit for aircraft movement d. Aerodrome unfit for aircraft movement

Last Answer : a. Glider flying in progress