Description : The correct reply to the instruction “HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY” is: a. WILCO b. ROGER c. HOLDING SHORT d. UNDERSTOOD
Last Answer : c. HOLDING SHORT
Description : The phrase to use when you want to say “yes” is: a. AFFIRMATIVE b. ROGER c. WILCO d. AFFIRM
Last Answer : d. AFFIRM
Description : When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code
Last Answer : d. Read back mode and code
Description : The correct reply to the instruction “HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY” is:
Last Answer : HOLDING SHORT
Description : The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY
Last Answer : c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20”
Description : What are the key points of a good briefing? a. Individual, understood and simple b. Individual, clear and simple c. Individual, understood and short d. Simple, clear, understood and individual
Last Answer : c. Individual, understood and short
Description : An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? ... than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m
Last Answer : d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m
Description : Where a light or medium category aeroplane is taking off behind a heavy category aeroplane on the same runway and from the same point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
Last Answer : b. 2
Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Last Answer : d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the ... throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible
Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind
Description : In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway? a. GAFOR b. TAF c. METAR d. SIGMET
Last Answer : c. METAR
Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP
Last Answer : c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP
Description : During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line
Last Answer : c. Within 15° of runway centre-line
Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF
Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach
Description : You see a double white cross in a signal square, what does this mean? a. Glider flying in progress b. Tow ropes and banners may be dropped c. Runway unfit for aircraft movement d. Aerodrome unfit for aircraft movement
Last Answer : a. Glider flying in progress
Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above
Last Answer : d. All of the above
Description : The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure
Last Answer : d. Examine a system or procedure
Description : Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be: a. VFR/IFR b. SMOOTH/TURBULENT c. NOT BAD/SO SO d. VMC/IMC
Last Answer : d. VMC/IMC
Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed
Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft
Description : The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should: a. Carry out a go around b. Continue with 360 degree turns c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only d. Reverse the direction of the turn
Last Answer : c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only
Description : The definition of the instruction “MONITORO” is: a. Listen out on frequency b. Establish communications on frequency c. Watch out for visual signals on frequency d. You are being watched
Last Answer : a. Listen out on frequency
Description : An aeroplane of 110,000kg has its CG at 22.6m aft of the datum. The CG limits are 18m to 22m aft of the datum. How much mass must be removed from a hold 30m aft of the datum to bring the CG to its mid point? a. 26,800 kg b. 28,600 kg c. 86,200 kg d. 62,800 kg
Last Answer : b. 28,600 kg
Description : The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is: a. Consider the transmission as not sent b. Proceed with your message c. Wait and I will call you d. Hold your present position
Last Answer : c. Wait and I will call you
Description : Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel
Last Answer : c. EAT or ETA
Description : . The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY
Last Answer : c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20
Description : The nurse instructs the nursing attendant to perform cleansing enema until the return flow is clear. The nursing attendant understood the instruction when she says, I will A. Call you when the return flow is ... flow D. Put the client in left Sim's position to achieve the desired return flow.
Last Answer : A. Call you when the return flow is clear”
Description : All of the following are the limitations of televised instruction except (a) Televised lesson moves at a fixed speed and thus can not take the individual differences of students into account ... materials clearly understood (d) Experts consume much time in planning and preparation of the programme.
Last Answer : (c) It does not properly help the students in making the materials clearly understood
Description : To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust
Last Answer : b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force
Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft
Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan
Description : The correct format for the input of position 50N 00527E to the CDU is: a. 5000.0N00527.0E b. N50E00527 c. N5000.0E00527.0 d. N5000E00527
Last Answer : c. N5000.0E00527.0
Description : An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS should be set to: a. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication b. 244 to get the ... the correct needle sense and a FROM indication d. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication
Last Answer : b. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication
Description : Two aircrafts, one with a sharp wing profile (S) and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with the same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small ... aircrafts accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T
Last Answer : d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T
Description : Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & ... 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct
Last Answer : b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct
Description : DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel Which of the following is correct? a. Estimated landing mass at destination ... 43,295kg c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg
Last Answer : b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg
Description : The correct readback of the frequency 123.725 on 25 kHz spacing is: a. 123.725 b. 123.7 c. 12372 d. 123.72
Last Answer : a. 123.725
Description : The term “CORRECTION” is used when: a. The readback of a message is incorrect b. The readback of a message is correct c. The message has to be deleted d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version isH..
Last Answer : d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version isH..
Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind
Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace
Description : An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude over a warm airmass. The altimeter reading will be: a. Correct b. Greater than the real altitude c. Less than the real altitude d. Oscillating around the correct altitude
Last Answer : c. Less than the real altitude
Description : International Bureau at Berne has given exclusive right to DOP to hold stock of -------------- article A. Aerogramme b. international Reply Coupons c. Foreign Speed Post
Last Answer : b. international Reply Coupons
Description : Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following hold (s) office during good behavior? (a) Governor of State (b) Attorney General of India (c) Judges of high court (d) Administrator of Union ... ) (c) Only (C) (a) and (c) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Last Answer : Answer: B
Description : If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases
Last Answer : d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases
Description : The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
Last Answer : d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
Description : If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment
Last Answer : b. An increased rate of roll
Description : If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same
Last Answer : a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper
Description : An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1
Last Answer : b. 15:1
Description : What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack b. The same true ... c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack d. A constant angle of attack and true airspeed
Last Answer : a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack
Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed
Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed