Description : Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
Last Answer : c. 5
Description : Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3
Last Answer : b. 5
Description : An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? ... than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m
Last Answer : d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m
Description : The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircrafts at the same FL, where there is enough coverage for navigation aids and the preceeding aircraft has a higher true airspeed of 20kts minimum is: a. 3 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes
Last Answer : c. 5 minutes
Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed
Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft
Description : The priority of the message “LINE UP” is: a. Greater than “REQUEST QDM” b. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND” c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20” d. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY
Last Answer : c. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20”
Description : After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days
Last Answer : d. 60 days
Description : The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach: a. 2400m b. 2500m c. 2600m d. 2700
Last Answer : a. 2400m
Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the ... throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible
Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind
Description : What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR flights flying in the same direction below FL 290? a. 500ft b. 1000ft c. 2000ft d. 4000ft
Last Answer : c. 2000ft
Description : From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be used? a. Green b. Red c. White d. All of the above
Last Answer : b. Red
Description : Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what ... to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out
Last Answer : b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power
Description : An aeroplane of 110,000kg has its CG at 22.6m aft of the datum. The CG limits are 18m to 22m aft of the datum. How much mass must be removed from a hold 30m aft of the datum to bring the CG to its mid point? a. 26,800 kg b. 28,600 kg c. 86,200 kg d. 62,800 kg
Last Answer : b. 28,600 kg
Description : What is the currency requirement for a pilot? a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same ... 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days
Last Answer : c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days
Description : The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is: a. 500 feet (150m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300m) d. 2000 feet (600m)
Last Answer : c. 1000 feet (300m)
Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Last Answer : d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Description : In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway? a. GAFOR b. TAF c. METAR d. SIGMET
Last Answer : c. METAR
Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP
Last Answer : c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP
Description : The correct reply to the instruction “HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY” is: a. WILCO b. ROGER c. HOLDING SHORT d. UNDERSTOOD
Last Answer : c. HOLDING SHORT
Description : During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line
Last Answer : c. Within 15° of runway centre-line
Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF
Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach
Description : You see a double white cross in a signal square, what does this mean? a. Glider flying in progress b. Tow ropes and banners may be dropped c. Runway unfit for aircraft movement d. Aerodrome unfit for aircraft movement
Last Answer : a. Glider flying in progress
Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above
Last Answer : d. All of the above
Description : A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed
Last Answer : c. Excess engine power
Description : What criteria determine which engine is the critical engine of a twin-engine aeroplane? a. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage b. The one ... the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust d. The failure of which causes the least yawing moment
Last Answer : b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage
Description : The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude
Last Answer : b. Variations in aeroplane loading
Description : Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight? a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal b. These forces are equal ... greater than weight d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal
Last Answer : b. These forces are equal
Description : A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a ... not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome
Last Answer : b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency
Description : If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane, the measures that should be taken are designed to: a. Disable the device b. Find out what will trigger the device c. Prevent ... d. Locate and move the device to the least risk' location and apply as much padding as possible
Last Answer : d. Locate and move the device to the ‘least risk’ location and apply as much padding as possible
Description : If the captain elects to ditch the aeroplane, it is recommended to: a. Land along the swell b. Land into the swell but down wind c. Land into the swell but into wind d. Land into wind regardless of the swell direction if the wind speed is over 20kts
Last Answer : a. Land along the swell
Description : The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to: a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate all speeds plus 10kts b. Reduce ... d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto the water
Last Answer : c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at lowest possible speed with the nose raised for the tail to strike first
Description : In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional ... a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers
Last Answer : d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers
Description : Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference? a. The Commander or the Operator b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred c. Any member of the flight crew d. Any person on board the aeroplane
Last Answer : a. The Commander or the Operato
Description : A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ... suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight
Last Answer : a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance
Description : An aeroplane has a run of 500 m to take off from the runway. It starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration
Last Answer : An aeroplane has a run of 500 m to take off from the runway. It starts from rest and moves with ... is the velocity of the aeroplane at the take off ?
Description : The correct readback of the frequency 123.725 on 25 kHz spacing is: a. 123.725 b. 123.7 c. 12372 d. 123.72
Last Answer : a. 123.725
Description : For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time
Last Answer : b. 60 minutes before departure
Description : The visual and aural indications obtained when overflying an ILS middle marker are: a. Continuous low pitched dashes with synchronized blue light b. Continuous high pitched dots with synchronized amber ... dots and dashes with amber light d. One letter in Morse with synchronized white light
Last Answer : c. Alternating medium pitch dots and dashes with amber light
Description : Aircrafts are categorized according to their threshold speeds, multiplied by a factor. What aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 141kts – 165kts? a. B b. E c. D d. C
Last Answer : d. C
Description : Which of the following is an advantage of MLS? a. Can be used in inhospitable terrain b. Uses the same aircraft equipment as ILS c. Has a selective access ability d. Is not affected by heavy precipitation
Last Answer : a. Can be used in inhospitable terrain
Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below
Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability
Description : One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an ... for aerodrome use d. arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
Last Answer : c. arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
Description : What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? a. 1000m b. 1500m c. 2000m d. 3000m
Last Answer : b. 1500m
Description : What is the time of useful consciousness at 20,000 feet (moderate activity)? a. 5 minutes b. 1 minute c. 10 minutes d. 30 seconds
Last Answer : a. 5 minutes
Description : After flying for 16 minutes at 100kt TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: a. 10 min 40 sec b. 20 min c. 24 min d. 16 min
Last Answer : c. 24 min
Description : The time given in aeronautical communications is: a. Local mean time b. In minutes only c. UTC d. Daylight saving time
Last Answer : c. UTC
Description : Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel
Last Answer : c. EAT or ETA
Description : The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that braking action: a. Poor b. Medium to poor c. Medium d. Slippery
Last Answer : a. Poor
Description : For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is: a. The time overhead the first reporting point after take-off b. The time at which the flight plan is filed c. The estimated off-block time d. The time of take-off
Last Answer : c. The estimated off-block time