If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

If a CSD overheat warning is shown:  
a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself  b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator  
c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the temperature has  reduced  
d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight
by

1 Answer

Answer :

d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight
by

Related questions

If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Description : If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The ... temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Last Answer : d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM c. A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for take-offs d. As the propeller control setting is changed by the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM

The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Description : The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Last Answer : b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required

A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure? a. Take-off is not possible under these conditions b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind c. Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the ... throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind

If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Description : If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Last Answer : b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission

When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Description : When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Last Answer : d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator

Description : Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator

Last Answer : b. The captain

A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure to relieve the symptoms c. Continue the flight at a lower altitude and carry out exercises to relieve the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft

Description : The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft

Last Answer : a. Pilot in command

To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust

Description : To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust

Last Answer : b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force

The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Description : The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Last Answer : c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture

The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: a. At flight level b. At height of observatory c. At a determined density altitude d. Reduced to sea level

Description : The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: a. At flight level b. At height of observatory c. At a determined density altitude d. Reduced to sea level

Last Answer : d. Reduced to sea level

A stall warning device must be set to operate: a. At the stalling speed b. At a speed just below the stalling speed c. At a speed about 5% to 10% above the stalling speed d. At a speed about 20% above the stalling speed

Description : A stall warning device must be set to operate: a. At the stalling speed b. At a speed just below the stalling speed c. At a speed about 5% to 10% above the stalling speed d. At a speed about 20% above the stalling speed

Last Answer : c. At a speed about 5% to 10% above the stalling speed

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

Description : By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

Last Answer : c. Lift, airspeed and drag

To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have: a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently

Description : To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have: a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently

Last Answer : a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC b. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s proximity c. RAs must never be disregarded d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

Last Answer : b. Descend

What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects? a. Change of flight level b. Change of course c. Increase of speed d. Decrease of speed

Description : What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects? a. Change of flight level b. Change of course c. Increase of speed d. Decrease of speed

Last Answer : a. Change of flight level

What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c. Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Description : What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c ... need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Last Answer : b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not

How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability

When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Description : When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Last Answer : d. Read back mode and code

If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

Description : If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

Last Answer : b. increased

To ensure some degree of longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the CG: a. Must always coincide with the AC b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point c. Must be aft of the Neutral Point d. Must not be forward of the aft CG limi

Description : To ensure some degree of longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the CG: a. Must always coincide with the AC b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point c. Must be aft of the Neutral Point d. Must not be forward of the aft CG limi

Last Answer : b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point

When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Description : When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. ... by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Last Answer : c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board

When must a radiation indicator be carried? a. For flight above 29,000ft b. For flight above 39,000ft c. For flight above 49,000ft d. For flight above 59,000ft

Description : When must a radiation indicator be carried? a. For flight above 29,000ft b. For flight above 39,000ft c. For flight above 49,000ft d. For flight above 59,000ft

Last Answer : c. For flight above 49,000ft

After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Description : After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Last Answer : d. 60 days

If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Description : If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must ... d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance

Which of the following is an obligation of being an ICAO contracting state? a. ICAO must be informed about all new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses b. ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention c. ICAO must approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections d. ICAO must be informed about changes to national regulations

Description : Which of the following is an obligation of being an ICAO contracting state? a. ICAO must be informed about all new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses ... of tickets on international airline connections d. ICAO must be informed about changes to national regulations

Last Answer : b. ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention

When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance c. He/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Description : When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if ... appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Last Answer : b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance

For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Description : For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Last Answer : b. 60 minutes before departure

Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Last Answer : c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility

t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

Description : t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

Last Answer : a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster

What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed c. 12 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

Description : What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of ... that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

Last Answer : d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

Description : How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

Last Answer : a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: LRC, at FL330 outside air temperature -30C. Find estimated trip fuel and time. a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V ... b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Last Answer : a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min

True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Description : True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Last Answer : b. FL140

With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected ‘ON’: a. Whenever the igniters are on b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture c. Whenever the TOAT is +10°C or below and it is raining d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on

Description : With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected ON': a. Whenever the igniters are on b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture c. Whenever ... is +10°C or below and it is raining d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on

Last Answer : b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture

On an engine throttle control system, the auxiliary control circuits are provided with devices to prevent excessive overtravel of the pilot valve by the synchronous motor. These devices are called _________________. A. overlap sensors B. limit switches C. overtravel relays D. proximity switches

Description : On an engine throttle control system, the auxiliary control circuits are provided with devices to prevent excessive overtravel of the pilot valve by the synchronous motor. These devices are called _________________. A. overlap sensors B. limit switches C. overtravel relays D. proximity switches

Last Answer : Answer: B

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional airflow to the pressurization systems c. Maintain the aeroplane altitude to prevent further damage to the airframe by over loading of the structure d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Description : In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional ... a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Last Answer : d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

What is the currency requirement for a pilot? a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 60 days c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days d. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days

Description : What is the currency requirement for a pilot? a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same ... 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days

Last Answer : c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days

An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are: a. 285, TO b. 105, TO c. 285, FROM d. 105, FROM

Description : An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are: a. 285, TO b. 105, TO c. 285, FROM d. 105, FROM

Last Answer : a. 285, TO

A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to alter the apparent motion of any distant object c. Maximizing the time spent looking in each sector to allow the maximum chance of detecting movement d. Maintaining as far as possible a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Description : A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to ... a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Last Answer : a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible

A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are symptoms of: a. The Occulogyral Effect b. Flicker-vertigo c. Pilot’s Vertigo d. Nystagmus

Description : A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are symptoms of: a. The Occulogyral Effect b. Flicker-vertigo c. Pilot’s Vertigo d. Nystagmus

Last Answer : c. Pilot’s Vertigo

What are the personality traits of a good pilot? a. Reliable and stable b. Stable and extraverted c. Reliable and extraverted d. Reliable, calm and extraverted

Description : What are the personality traits of a good pilot? a. Reliable and stable b. Stable and extraverted c. Reliable and extraverted d. Reliable, calm and extraverted

Last Answer : b. Stable and extraverted

What should the pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC? a. Vision b. Turning head to recover from disorientation c. Sense of balance d. Instruments

Description : What should the pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC? a. Vision b. Turning head to recover from disorientation c. Sense of balance d. Instruments

Last Answer : d. Instruments

A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a pilot only if he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a ... he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Last Answer : d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & 3 only are correct b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct

Description : Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & ... 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct

Last Answer : b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct

A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday

Description : A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday

Last Answer : c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing