Description : With an almost discharged battery there will be:
Last Answer : A. decrease in voltage and increase in load.
Description : With an almost discharged battery there will be: a. A decrease of voltage with increasing load b. Increase of current with decrease of voltage c. Decrease of current with increasing load d. Increase of voltage with increasing load
Last Answer : a. A decrease of voltage with increasing load
Description : The LED indicator on the emergency torch is flashing at 4 seconds intervals. This indicates: a. The battery is charging b. The torch is serviceable c. The battery needs replacing d. The filament is broken
Last Answer : b. The torch is serviceable
Description : What to do when inverter battery is fully discharged?
Last Answer : If the inverter battery is fully discharged then the inverter or UPS should put to OFF position and charge the inverter for enough time before putting it ON again. If the inverter is unable to charge the battery then you may charge it using another charger or inverter. Then connect it back again.
Description : When a lead storage battery is discharged - (1) SO2 is evolved (2) Lead sulphate is consumed (3) Lead is formed (4) Sulphuric acid is consumed
Last Answer : (4) Sulphuric acid is consumed Explanation: Lead storage battery was invented by French physicist Gaston Plante in 1859. In the discharged state both the positive and negative plates become lead sulphate and the electrolyte loses much of its dissolved sulphuric acid and becomes primarily water.
Description : If the illustrated device is fully discharged, what will be the result? EL-0061 A. The battery will be short circuited because the mud space will be filled with lead sulfate B. The electrolyte ... minimum sulfuric acid. D. The plates will be maximum lead oxide and sponge lead minimum lead sulfate.
Last Answer : Answer: C
Description : A lead-acid battery cell sustaining a short circuit _______. A. will be indicated by lime accumulation on the terminal posts B. will have unusually high cell voltage C. will become excessively heated while being charged D. cannot be completely discharged under load
Description : The specific gravity of the electrolyte solution in a lead acid battery _____________. A. is not effected during charging B. remains the same during discharge C. would read close to 1.830 when discharged D. gives an indication of the state of charge of the battery
Last Answer : Answer: D
Description : Which of the problems listed will occur if a lead-acid battery is allowed to remain in a discharged condition for a long period of time? A. The battery may be unable to accept a full charge ... . C. The concentrated sulfuric acid will attack the lead peroxide plates. D. The separators will harden.
Last Answer : Answer: A
Description : When checking the specific gravity of the battery electrolyte with a hydrometer, you should be aware that ________________. A. the battery is fully charged when the float sinks deepest into the ... is added to the cell D. warm temperatures will lower the specific gravity of the electrolyte
Description : Local action in a dry-cell, or lead-acid storage battery is the process whereby ________________. A. hydrogen gas is liberated B. the electrolyte compensates for overcharging C. potassium hydroxide ... carbon dioxide from the air D. the battery becomes discharged without being connected to a load
Description : Which of the following statements concerning nickel-cadmium batteries is true? A. When mixing electrolyte always add acid to the water. B. Nickel-cadmium batteries can be charged and ... The electrolyte of an idle nickel-cadmium battery must be replaced monthly to maintain battery condition.
Description : The freezing point of the electrolyte in a fully charged lead-acid battery will be _____________. A. higher than in a discharged battery B. lower than in a discharged battery C. the same as in a discharged battery D. higher than in a discharged battery, but the specific gravity will be less
Last Answer : Answer: B
Description : What factors that decide the VRLA battery to completely charged from fully discharged condition?
Last Answer : Answer: Some of the important factors that determine the duration of the discharged battery to charge are: Duration of the discharge occurred Temperature at which battery is operating Size and efficiency of the charger
Description : battery must be turned over to a charging station in winter if discharged by a) 50% b) 40% c) 30% d) 25%
Last Answer : d) 25%
Description : At what voltage is a NICAD battery considered to be fully discharged?
Last Answer : At 1.1 volts.
Description : Terminal potential difference of a battery is greater than its emf when a. the internal resistance of battery is infinite b. the internal resistance of battery is zero c. the battery is charged d. the battery is discharged
Last Answer : c. the battery is charged
Description : When a lead storage battery is discharged, (1) SO2 is evolved (2) Lead sulphate is consumed (3) Lead is formed (4) Sulphuric acid is consumed
Last Answer : Sulphuric acid is consumed
Description : You're 36,000 ft. above earth and a hole erupts in the fuselage of the aircraft you are in. What are your thoughts and what would you do?
Last Answer : I am not very religious but I think I would pray.
Description : When did FEDEX add the B777 to their fleet?
Last Answer : UScitizen Try this ==> http://mediacenter.fedex.designcdt.com/taxonomy/term/753 Last fall.
Description : Aircraft Carrier
Last Answer : An aircraft carrier gets about 6 inches per gallon of fuel.
Description : What Positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
Last Answer : OSITIONS WITH THE SAME AIR PRESSURE AT A GIVEN LEVEL
Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is
Last Answer : Qff
Description : If you are flying at FL300 in an airmass that is 15*C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
Last Answer : 30*C
Description : How would you characterize an air temperature of -55*C at the 200HPA level over western Europe?
Last Answer : WITH IN + 5*C OF ISA
Description : What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?
Last Answer : TROPOPAUSE
Description : The greater the pressure gradient the: a. Closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures b. Further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
Last Answer : c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
Description : In an area of converging air a. Clouds cannot be formed b. Clouds can be formed c. Convective clouds can be dissolved d. Stratified clouds can be dissolved
Last Answer : b. Clouds can be formed
Description : In which zone of a jetstream is the strongest CAT to be expected? a. The warm air side of the core b. Exactly in the center of the core c. About 12,000ft above the core d. The cold air side of the core
Last Answer : d. The cold air side of the core
Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed
Last Answer : b. Descend
Description : Which of the following statement is an interpretation of the SIGMET? LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / ... towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL260
Last Answer : c. Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL260 and FL380
Description : Refer to the following TAF for Zurich LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is: a. 6km b. 6nm c. 4km d. 10km
Last Answer : a. 6km
Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Last Answer : d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Description : The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means: a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers c. Becoming from 1100UTC rain showers d. Becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers
Last Answer : b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers
Description : What is the coldest time of the day? a. 1hr before sunrise b. 1/2 hr before sunrise c. At exact moment of sunrise d. 1/2 hour after sunrise
Last Answer : d. 1/2 hour after sunrise
Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is: a. QNE b. QFF c. QFE d. QNH
Last Answer : a. QNE
Description : With regard to RVR and Met vis: a. Met vis is usually less than RVR b. Met vis is usually greater than RVR c. RVR is usually less than met vis d. Met vis and RVR are usually the same
Last Answer : a. Met vis is usually less than RVR
Description : Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 30,065 ft pressure level (FL 300)? a. 200 hPa b. 700 hPa c. 500 hPa d. 300 hPa
Last Answer : d. 300 hPa
Description : In what frequency band is the ATIS normally broadcasted? a. LF b. HF c. ADF d. VHF
Last Answer : d. VHF
Description : You are cruising at FL 200, OAT is -40°C, sea level pressure is 1033 hPa. Calculate the true altitude. a. 20,660 ft b. 21,740 ft c. 18,260 ft d. 19, 340 ft
Last Answer : d. 19, 340 ft
Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the ... throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible
Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind
Description : ATC will only report wind as gusting if: a. Gust speed exceeds mean speed by >15kts b. Gusts to over 25kts c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts d. Gusts to under 25kts
Last Answer : c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts
Description : Two aircrafts, one with a sharp wing profile (S) and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with the same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small ... aircrafts accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T
Last Answer : d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T
Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below
Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability
Description : The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: a. At flight level b. At height of observatory c. At a determined density altitude d. Reduced to sea level
Last Answer : d. Reduced to sea level
Description : An inversion is: a. A decrease of pressure with height b. A decrease of temperature with height c. An increase of temperature with height d. An increase of pressure with height
Last Answer : c. An increase of temperature with height
Description : What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects? a. Change of flight level b. Change of course c. Increase of speed d. Decrease of speed
Last Answer : a. Change of flight level
Description : QFE is 1000 hPa with an airfield elevation of 200m AMSL. What is QNH? (use 8m per hPa) a. 975 hPa b. 1025 hPa c. 1008 hPa d. 992 hPa
Last Answer : b. 1025 hPa
Description : VOLMETs are updated a. Every hour b. 4 times a day c. 2 times a day d. Every half hour
Last Answer : d. Every half hour
Description : When a TREND is included at the end of a METAR, the trend is a forecast valid for: a. 1 hour after the time of observation b. 2 hours after the time of observation c. 2 hours after it was issued d. 1 hour after it was issued
Last Answer : b. 2 hours after the time of observation