For take-off performance calculations, what is taken into account?
a. OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight
b. Standard temperature, altitude, wind, weight
c. Standard altitude, standard temperature, wind, weight
d. Standard temperature, pressure altitude, wind, weight

1 Answer

Answer :

a. OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight

Related questions

Description : For take-off performance calculations, what is taken into account? a. OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight b. Standard temperature, altitude, wind, weight c. Standard altitude, standard temperature, wind, weight d. Standard temperature, pressure altitude, wind, weight

Last Answer : a. OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight

Description : For takeoff performance calculations, what is taken into account?

Last Answer : OAT, pressure altitude, wind , weight

Description : You are cruising at FL 200, OAT is -40°C, sea level pressure is 1033 hPa. Calculate the true  altitude.  a. 20,660 ft  b. 21,740 ft  c. 18,260 ft  d. 19, 340 ft

Last Answer : d. 19, 340 ft

Description : Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 30,065 ft pressure level (FL 300)?  a. 200 hPa  b. 700 hPa  c. 500 hPa  d. 300 hPa

Last Answer : d. 300 hPa

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt

Last Answer : c. 25,000ft & 435kt

Description : Generally, as altitude increases: a. Temperature decreases and density increases b. Temperature, pressure and density decreases c. Temperature and pressure increase and density decreases d. Temperature decreases and pressure and density increase

Last Answer : b. Temperature, pressure and density decreases

Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible

Description : The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure:  a. At flight level  b. At height of observatory  c. At a determined density altitude  d. Reduced to sea level

Last Answer : d. Reduced to sea level

Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... relieve the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Description : The effects of carbon monoxide: a. Increases with altitude b. Decreases with altitude c. Increases with increase of density d. Decreases with pressure loss

Last Answer : a. Increases with altitude

Description : Cabin altitude in pressured flight is: a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter c. ... pressure equals ambient pressure d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions

Last Answer : a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height

Description : When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded? a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude b. During ground pressure testing c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs d. When changing to manual operation

Last Answer : a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude

Description : The greater the pressure gradient the:  a. Closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures  b. Further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature  c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind

Last Answer : c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind

Description : What causes wind? a. Difference in pressure b. Rotation of the earth c. Frontal systems d. Difference in temperature

Last Answer : a. Difference in pressure

Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an  inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the  ... throttle during the passage through the inversion  d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind

Description : You are cruising at FL 200, OAT is -40°C, sea level pressure is 1033 hPa. Calculate the true altitude. a. 20,660 ft b. 21,740 ft c. 18,260 ft d. 19, 340 ft

Last Answer : d. 19, 340 ft

Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor  land?  a. He ascends to the cold air layer above  b. He continues to fly at the same altitude  c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability  d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability 

Description : The time of useful consciousness for an individual experiencing rapid decompression at an altitude of 25,000 ft is

Last Answer : 2 minutes

Description : If the symptoms of hyperventilation occur at an altitude where hypoxia is not a consideration, what is the correct remedial action

Last Answer : decrease rate and depth of breathing

Description : What four factors affect night vision? a. Age, alcohol, altitude and smoking b. Age, altitude, instrument lights and smoking c. Instrument lights, altitude, alcohol and smoking d. Age, alcohol, altitude and instrument lights

Last Answer : a. Age, alcohol, altitude and smoking

Description : At a constant mass and altitude, a lower airspeed requires:

Last Answer : a higher coefficient of lif

Description : What factors affect descent angle in a glide? a. Configuration and altitude b. Configuration and angle of attack c. Mass and altitude d. Mass and configuration

Last Answer : b. Configuration and angle of attack

Description : At a constant mass and altitude, a lower airspeed requires: a. More thrust and a lower coefficient of lift b. Less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift c. More thrust and a lower coefficient of drag d. A higher coefficient of lift

Last Answer : d. A higher coefficient of lift

Description : An altitude of 13,500 feet would be spoken as:

Last Answer : ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET

Description : The transition of altitude to flight level and vice versa is made: a. On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent c. At the transition level only d. At the transition altitude only

Last Answer : b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent

Description : The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft

Last Answer : b. 10,000ft

Description : An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude over a warm airmass. The altimeter reading will be: a. Correct b. Greater than the real altitude c. Less than the real altitude d. Oscillating around the correct altitude

Last Answer : c. Less than the real altitude

Description : When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show: a. No change in altitude b. A slight climb c. A slight descent d. A slight descent at high airspeed only

Last Answer : b. A slight climb

Description : Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. ... off four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Last Answer : b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

Description :  If you are flying at FL300 in an airmass that is 15*C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the  outside temperature likely to be?

Last Answer : 30*C

Description : Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what ... to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Last Answer : b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power

Description : ATC will only report wind as gusting if:  a. Gust speed exceeds mean speed by >15kts  b. Gusts to over 25kts  c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts  d. Gusts to under 25kts

Last Answer : c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts 

Description : Where is wind shear the greatest? a. Near a strong low level inversion and in the region of a thunderstorm b. Near a valley with wind speeds greater than 35kts c. On the windward side of a mountain d. When the wind is greater than 35kts

Last Answer : a. Near a strong low level inversion and in the region of a thunderstorm

Description : After flying for 16 minutes at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after:

Last Answer : 24 mins

Description : A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time ... 1hr 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Last Answer : d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Description : After flying for 16 minutes at 100kt TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: a. 10 min 40 sec b. 20 min c. 24 min d. 16 min

Last Answer : c. 24 min

Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

Description : Which of the following would give the greatest gliding performance? a. Flight at VMD b. Flight at 1.32VMD c. Flight at the best CL/CD ratio d. Flight close to CL MAX

Last Answer : d. Flight close to CL MAX

Description : When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Last Answer : d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Description : An inversion is:  a. A decrease of pressure with height  b. A decrease of temperature with height  c. An increase of temperature with height  d. An increase of pressure with height

Last Answer : c. An increase of temperature with height

Description : A pressure head is subject to the following errors: a. Position, manoeuvre induced, temperature b. Position, manoeuvre induced c. Position, manoeuvre induced, density d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument

Last Answer : d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument

Description : If having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the ff. action should be taken

Last Answer : seek medical advice as soon as possible

Description : What is the 1st action taken by the pilot in the event of a cabin decompression above 10,000 ft

Last Answer : don oxygen mask and check oxygen flow

Description : If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain

Last Answer : c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible

Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF

Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach

Description : When does the first segment of the take-off climb begin?

Last Answer : When 35 feet is reached

Description : The first segment of the take-off flight path ends:

Last Answer : at completion of gear retraction

Description : Given: DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel Which of the following is correct? a. Estimated landing mass ... destination 43,295kg c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg

Last Answer : b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg

Description : When does the first segment of the take-off climb begin? a. When V2 is reached b. When 35 feet is reached c. When flaps are up d. When gear and flaps are up

Last Answer : c. The estimated off-block time

Description : What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Last Answer : a. From take-off to overhead destination