If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action
should be taken:
a. Ignore and it will go away
b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher
c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible
d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain

1 Answer

Answer :

c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible

Related questions

Description : If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain

Last Answer : c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible

Description : If having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the ff. action should be taken

Last Answer : seek medical advice as soon as possible

Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... relieve the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You  experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action?  a. Stay level  b. Descend  c. Climb  d. Reduce speed

Last Answer : b. Descend 

Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Last Answer : d. All of the above

Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible

Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Last Answer : c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility

Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

Last Answer : b. Descend

Description : The term “DISREGARD” means: a. Ignore b. Cancel the last clearance c. You have not been cleared d. Pay no attention to what I say

Last Answer : a. Ignore

Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF

Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach

Description : . At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft

Last Answer : d. 41,000ft

Description : At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask? a. 25,000ft b. 32,000ft c. 37,000ft d. 41,000ft

Last Answer : d. 41,000ft

Description : The MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome? a. 20nm b. 30nm c. 25nm d. 15nm

Last Answer : c. 25nm

Description : What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided? a. 25nm b. 10nm c. 15nm d. 15km

Last Answer : a. 25nm

Description : Where is the 300mb level approximately in ISA? a. 30,000ft b. 39,000ft c. 18,000ft d. 10,000ft

Last Answer : a. 30,000ft

Description : The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft

Last Answer : b. 10,000ft

Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

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Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above

Last Answer : d. All of the above

Description : With air in the hydraulic system, you would: a. Ignore it because normal operation would remove it b. Bleed the air out of the system c. Allow the accumulator to auto

Last Answer : b. Bleed the air out of the system

Description : In which zone of a jetstream is the strongest CAT to be expected?  a. The warm air side of the core  b. Exactly in the center of the core  c. About 12,000ft above the core  d. The cold air side of the core

Last Answer : d. The cold air side of the core

Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor  land?  a. He ascends to the cold air layer above  b. He continues to fly at the same altitude  c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability  d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability 

Description : The Critical Zone of hypoxia begins at: a. 18,000ft b. 20,000ft c. 23,000ft d. 3,600ft

Last Answer : b. 20,000ft

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt

Last Answer : c. 25,000ft & 435kt

Description : Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) cannot be used for flights other than those executed frequently on the same days of the following weeks and: a. For at least 20 occasions or every day over a period of ... or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive days d. For at least 20 occasions

Last Answer : c. For at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive days

Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible

Description : What cannot be left out from a position report? a. Callsign, Flight Level and Time b. Callsign, Position and Time c. Position, Time, Flight Level, Next position and ETA d. Your signature

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Description : When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if ... appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

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Description : To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during the landing the pilot of a modern airliner should:

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Description : What is the 1st action taken by the pilot in the event of a cabin decompression above 10,000 ft

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Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an  inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the  ... throttle during the passage through the inversion  d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

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Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

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Description : Professional accountants may encounter problems in identifying unethical behavior or in resolving an ethical conflict. When facedwith significant ethical issues, professional accountants should do the following ... body or regulatory body to obtain an understanding of possible courses of action

Last Answer : If the problem is not resolved with the immediate superior and the professional accountant determines to go to the next higher managerial level, the immediate superior need not be notified of the decision.

Description : Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. ... off four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Last Answer : b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Last Answer : c. 30 mins

Description : How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Last Answer : a. 3.00 hrs

Description : For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Last Answer : b. 60 minutes before departure

Description : The carbon dioxide level of the blood level is higher than normal. Does the brain:

Last Answer : increase the rate of breathing and pulse rate

Description : A shuttle valve will: a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve

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Description : The term “DISREGARD” means: a. Ignore b. Cancel the last clearance c. You have not been cleared d. Pay no attention to what I say

Last Answer : a. Ignore

Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF

Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach

Description : The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure:  a. At flight level  b. At height of observatory  c. At a determined density altitude  d. Reduced to sea level

Last Answer : d. Reduced to sea level

Description : What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?  a. Change of flight level  b. Change of course  c. Increase of speed  d. Decrease of speed

Last Answer : a. Change of flight level

Description : How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

Last Answer : a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA

Description : During general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize the

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Description : During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls

Last Answer : b. The importance of crew coordination