Description : When does the first segment of the take-off climb begin? a. When V2 is reached b. When 35 feet is reached c. When flaps are up d. When gear and flaps are up
Last Answer : c. The estimated off-block time
Description : For a turbojet aeroplane the third segment of climb begins when:
Last Answer : Acceleration to a flap retraction speed begins (min 400ft)
Description : For a turbojet aeroplane the second segment of the climb begins when:
Last Answer : Landing gear is fully retracted
Last Answer : b. When 35 feet is reached
Description : When is spark plug fouling most likely to occur? a. In the climb if you have not adjusted the mixture b. Cruise power c. In the descent if you have not adjusted the mixture d. Max take-off power
Last Answer : a. In the climb if you have not adjusted the mixture
Description : The first segment of the take-off flight path ends:
Last Answer : at completion of gear retraction
Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed
Last Answer : b. Descend
Description : Maximum endurance: a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight c. Can be achieved in a steady climb d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling
Last Answer : a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption
Description : An aircraft climbs from an airfield, elevation 1500ft, QNH 1023mb, to FL75. What height does the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1mb=30ft) a. 6600 ft b. 7800 ft c. 6300 ft d. 6000 ft
Last Answer : c. 6300 ft
Description : The transition of altitude to flight level and vice versa is made: a. On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent c. At the transition level only d. At the transition altitude only
Last Answer : b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent
Description : If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate: a. Zero b. Climb c. Descent d. Reducing pressure
Last Answer : b. Climb
Description : When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show: a. No change in altitude b. A slight climb c. A slight descent d. A slight descent at high airspeed only
Last Answer : b. A slight climb
Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the ... throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible
Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind
Description : Given: DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel Which of the following is correct? a. Estimated landing mass ... destination 43,295kg c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg
Last Answer : b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg
Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt
Last Answer : c. 25,000ft & 435kt
Description : For take-off performance calculations, what is taken into account? a. OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight b. Standard temperature, altitude, wind, weight c. Standard altitude, standard temperature, wind, weight d. Standard temperature, pressure altitude, wind, weight
Last Answer : a. OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight
Description : What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate
Last Answer : a. From take-off to overhead destination
Description : If a jet engine fails during take-off before V1: a. The take-off can be continued or aborted b. The take-off should be aborted c. The take-off should be continued d. The take-off may be continued if the aircraft speed is above VMCG and lies between VGO and VSTOP
Last Answer : b. The take-off should be aborted
Description : The instruction from ATC to an aircraft to abandon its take off includes the phrase:
Last Answer : STOP IMMEDIATELY
Description : What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? a. 1000m b. 1500m c. 2000m d. 3000m
Last Answer : b. 1500m
Description : A hand pump is usually fitted: a. For ground servicing purposes b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air d. Retracting the gear after take-off
Last Answer : a. For ground servicing purposes
Description : A marshaller crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outward and then moves the arms outwards. What does the signal indicate? a. Clear to move forward b. Brakes off c. Remove chocks d. Clear to close all engines
Last Answer : c. Remove chocks
Description : Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. ... off four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights
Last Answer : b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
Description : For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time
Last Answer : b. 60 minutes before departure
Description : A magneto is switched off by
Last Answer : D. Grounding the Primary Circuit
Description : 1. A magneto is switched off by
Description : When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down
Last Answer : d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down
Description : Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle
Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance
Description : An aircraft is converging from the left. Which light will you see first? a. Red b. Green c. Blue d. White
Last Answer : b. Green
Description : This strategy attempts to gain a competitive advantage by keeping R&D costs, production costs and raw material costs to a minimum in order to compete on the basis of price. The product life ... Life Cycle Focus d. Differentiation strategy with a Product Life Cycle Focus e. Broad Differentiation
Last Answer : c. Cost Leader with Product Life Cycle Focus
Description : You're 36,000 ft. above earth and a hole erupts in the fuselage of the aircraft you are in. What are your thoughts and what would you do?
Last Answer : I am not very religious but I think I would pray.
Description : When did FEDEX add the B777 to their fleet?
Last Answer : UScitizen Try this ==> http://mediacenter.fedex.designcdt.com/taxonomy/term/753 Last fall.
Description : Aircraft Carrier
Last Answer : An aircraft carrier gets about 6 inches per gallon of fuel.
Description : What Positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
Last Answer : OSITIONS WITH THE SAME AIR PRESSURE AT A GIVEN LEVEL
Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is
Last Answer : Qff
Description : If you are flying at FL300 in an airmass that is 15*C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
Last Answer : 30*C
Description : How would you characterize an air temperature of -55*C at the 200HPA level over western Europe?
Last Answer : WITH IN + 5*C OF ISA
Description : What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?
Last Answer : TROPOPAUSE
Description : The greater the pressure gradient the: a. Closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures b. Further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
Last Answer : c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
Description : In an area of converging air a. Clouds cannot be formed b. Clouds can be formed c. Convective clouds can be dissolved d. Stratified clouds can be dissolved
Last Answer : b. Clouds can be formed
Description : In which zone of a jetstream is the strongest CAT to be expected? a. The warm air side of the core b. Exactly in the center of the core c. About 12,000ft above the core d. The cold air side of the core
Last Answer : d. The cold air side of the core
Description : Which of the following statement is an interpretation of the SIGMET? LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / ... towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL260
Last Answer : c. Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL260 and FL380
Description : Refer to the following TAF for Zurich LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is: a. 6km b. 6nm c. 4km d. 10km
Last Answer : a. 6km
Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Last Answer : d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Description : The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means: a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers c. Becoming from 1100UTC rain showers d. Becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers
Last Answer : b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers
Description : What is the coldest time of the day? a. 1hr before sunrise b. 1/2 hr before sunrise c. At exact moment of sunrise d. 1/2 hour after sunrise
Last Answer : d. 1/2 hour after sunrise
Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is: a. QNE b. QFF c. QFE d. QNH
Last Answer : a. QNE
Description : With regard to RVR and Met vis: a. Met vis is usually less than RVR b. Met vis is usually greater than RVR c. RVR is usually less than met vis d. Met vis and RVR are usually the same
Last Answer : a. Met vis is usually less than RVR
Description : Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 30,065 ft pressure level (FL 300)? a. 200 hPa b. 700 hPa c. 500 hPa d. 300 hPa
Last Answer : d. 300 hPa
Description : In what frequency band is the ATIS normally broadcasted? a. LF b. HF c. ADF d. VHF
Last Answer : d. VHF