Which of the following statements accurately describes a risk factor for depression? a) History of physical or sexual abuse History of physical or sexual abuse and current substance abuse are risk factors for depression. b) Male gender A risk factor for depression is female gender. c) Age over 50 years A risk factor for depression is onset before 40 years. d) Negative family history of depression Family history of depression is a risk factor.

Which of the following statements accurately describes a risk
factor for depression?
a) History of physical or sexual abuse
History of physical or sexual abuse and current substance abuse are
risk factors for depression.
b) Male gender
A risk factor for depression is female gender.
c) Age over 50 years
A risk factor for depression is onset before 40 years.
d) Negative family history of depression
Family history of depression is a risk factor.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) History of physical or sexual abuse
History of physical or sexual abuse and current substance abuse are
risk factors for depression.
by

Related questions

The nurse recognizes which of the following statements as accurately reflecting a risk factor for breast cancer? a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases twofold if first-degree female relatives (sister, mother, or daughter) had breast cancer.

Description : The nurse recognizes which of the following statements as accurately reflecting a risk factor for breast cancer? a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases ... in women who consume even one drink daily and doubles among women drinking three drinks daily.

Last Answer : a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases twofold if first-degree female relatives (sister, mother, or daughter) had breast cancer.

Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco. b) It is three times more common in women in the U.S. than men. In the United States, carcinoma of the esophagus occurs more than three times as often in men as in women. c) It is seen more frequently in Caucasians than in African Americans. It is seen more frequently in African Americans than in Caucasians. d) It usually occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated ... occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Last Answer : a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco.

Of the following risk factors, which is considered modifiable? a) Diabetes mellitus While diabetes mellitus cannot be cured, blood sugars and symptomatology can be managed through healthy heart living. b) Gender Gender is considered a non-modifiable risk factor. c) Race Race is considered a non-modifiable risk factor. d) Increasing age Increasing age is considered a non-modifiable risk factor.

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Last Answer : a) Diabetes mellitus While diabetes mellitus cannot be cured, blood sugars and symptomatology can be managed through healthy heart living.

Which of the following characteristics are risk factors for colorectal cancer? a) Familial polyposis Family history of colon cancer or familial polyposis is a risk factor for colorectal cancer.

Description : Which of the following characteristics are risk factors for colorectal cancer? a) Familial polyposis Family history of colon cancer or familial polyposis is a risk factor for colorectal cancer. b) Age ... of skin cancer History of skin cancer is not a recognized risk factor for colorectal cancer.

Last Answer : a) Familial polyposis Family history of colon cancer or familial polyposis is a risk factor for colorectal cancer.

Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Description : Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type ... ) Advanced age Advanced age, gender, and race are non-modifiable risk factors for stroke.

Last Answer : a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Which of the following interventions is the single most important aspect for the patient at risk for anaphylaxis? a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or exerciseinduced anaphylactic reactions should always carry an emergency kit containing epinephrine for injection to prevent the onset of the reaction upon exposure.

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Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient’s fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed. b) Minimal urine output of 50 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output may be less than 50 mL/hr. c) Minimal urine output of 10 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output must exceed 10 mL/hr. d) Minimal intake of 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

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Last Answer : a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed.

The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

Description : The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding ... encouraged to void every 2-3 hours during the day and completely empty the bladder.

Last Answer : a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement, airway management, and standard nursing care support during the time that the patient has meningitis symptoms. a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

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Development of malignant melanoma is associated with which of the following risk factors? a) Individuals with a history of severe sunburn Ultraviolet rays are strongly suspected as the etiology of malignant melanoma.

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Last Answer : a) Individuals with a history of severe sunburn Ultraviolet rays are strongly suspected as the etiology of malignant melanoma.

Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors. b) Occupational exposure While a risk factor, occupational exposure is not the most important risk factor for development of COPD. c) Air pollution Air pollution is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor. d) Genetic abnormalities A deficiency of alpha-antitrypsin is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor.

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Last Answer : a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors.

Which of the following terms refers to difficult or painful sexual intercourse? a) Dyspareunia Dyspareunia is a common problem of the aged female.

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In which range of body mass index (BMI) are patients considered to have increased risk for problems associated with poor nutritional status? a) Below 24 Additionally, higher mortality rates in hospitalized patients and community-dwelling elderly are associated with individuals who have low BMI. b) 25-29 Those who have a BMI of 25 to 29 are considered overweight. c) 30 to 39 Those who have BMI of 30-39 are considered obese. d) Over 40 Those who have BMI over 40 are considered extremely obese.

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Which of the following items is considered the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs? a) History of present illness The history of the present illness is the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs. b) Physical examination The physical examination is helpful but often only validates the information obtained from the history. c) Diagnostic test results Diagnostic test results can be helpful, but they often only verify rather than establish the diagnosis. d) Biographical data Biographical information puts the health history in context but does not focus the diagnosis.

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Last Answer : a) History of present illness The history of the present illness is the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs.

The percentage of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital with delirium is about a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is often reversible and treatable (as in drug toxicity, vitamin B12 deficiency or thyroid disease) or chronic and irreversible. Depression may produce impairment of attention and memory.

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Diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height are history and physical findings associated with agerelated changes of the a) joints. History and physical findings associated with age-related changes of the joints include diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height.

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The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

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The following feature disfavours use of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus: A. Age at onset of disease over 40 years B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day C. Fasting blood sugar level between 100–200 mg/dl D. Associated obesity

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Last Answer : B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day

A 16 year old male with a day history of malaise, weakness and vomiting. He was diagnosed with Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus 3 years prviously. Which ONE of the following supports a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis: 1) Abdominal pain at onset 2) A serum bicarbonate of 10 mmol/l 3) A serum glucose 14 mmol/l 4) Decreased appetite in the past few days 5) Shallow respirations

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Of the following types of insulin, which is the most rapid acting? a) Humalog The onset of action of rapid-acting Humalog is within 10-15 minutes.

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Last Answer : a) Humalog The onset of action of rapid-acting Humalog is within 10-15 minutes.

The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure. b) Increased appetite Loss of appetite should be reported immediately. c) Weight loss Weight gain should be reported immediately. d) Ability to sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Description : The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of ... sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Last Answer : a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia. b) Sinus tachycardia Sinus tachycardia occurs when the sinus node regularly creates an impulse at a faster-than-normal rate. c) Atrial flutter Atrial flutter occurs in the atrium and creates an atrial rate between 250-400 times per minute. d) Atrial fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT ... fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

Last Answer : a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia.

Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness. b) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. c) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. d) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

Description : Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the ... comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

Last Answer : a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness.

In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. b) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. c) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period. d) Downward The downward phase occurs when symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Description : In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under ... symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Last Answer : a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed.

The aim of genomic medicine is a) improving predictions about individuals’ susceptibility to diseases Predictions regarding the time of their onset, their extent and eventual severity as well as which treatments or medications are likely to be most effective or harmful are the focus of genomic medicine. b) reproduction The focus of genomic medicine is broader than the reproduction of cells. c) cure of disease The focus of genomic medicine is broader than the cure of disease. d) cloning Genomic medicine is gene-based health care.

Description : The aim of genomic medicine is a) improving predictions about individuals' susceptibility to diseases Predictions regarding the time of their onset, their extent and eventual severity as well as which ... broader than the cure of disease. d) cloning Genomic medicine is gene-based health care.

Last Answer : a) improving predictions about individuals’ susceptibility to diseases Predictions regarding the time of their onset, their extent and eventual severity as well as which treatments or medications are likely to be most effective or harmful are the focus of genomic medicine.

When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms. b) acute. Acute PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms for less than a 3-month period. c) chronic. Chronic PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms lasting longer than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Description : When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there ... than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

The basic difference between nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems is that a) Nurses manage collaborative problems using physician-prescribed interventions. Collaborative problems are physiologic complications that nurses monitor to detect onset or changes and manage through the use of physician-prescribed and nursing-prescribed interventions to minimize the complications of events.

Description : The basic difference between nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems is that a) Nurses manage collaborative problems using physician-prescribed interventions. Collaborative problems are physiologic ... or potential health problems that can be managed by independent nursing interventions.

Last Answer : a) Nurses manage collaborative problems using physician-prescribed interventions. Collaborative problems are physiologic complications that nurses monitor to detect onset or changes and manage ... physician-prescribed and nursing-prescribed interventions to minimize the complications of events.

43. Mr. Gomez, 71 years old, has a history of chronic back pain. He thinks that his family perceives him as a “weakling” because he often asks for pain medication. Which of the following is the most therapeutic response of the nurse?

Description : 43. Mr. Gomez, 71 years old, has a history of chronic back pain. He thinks that his family perceives him as a “weakling” because he often asks for pain medication. Which of the following is the most therapeutic response of the nurse?

Last Answer : A. “It seems that you are worried. Which matter to you more? What people will say or getting relief from your pain?”

Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include a) lack of exposure to sunshine. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, low calcium and vitamin D diet, cigarette smoking, use of alcohol and/or caffeine, and lack of weight-bearing exercise.

Description : Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include a) lack of exposure to sunshine. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, low calcium and vitamin D diet, ... of osteoporosis, low initial bone mass, and contributing co-existing medical conditions and medications.

Last Answer : a) lack of exposure to sunshine. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, low calcium and vitamin D diet, cigarette smoking, use of alcohol and/or caffeine, and lack of weight-bearing exercise.

The usual incubation period (infection to first symptom) for AIDS is a) 10 years. HIV is transmitted through sexual, percutaneous, or perinatal contact.

Description : The usual incubation period (infection to first symptom) for AIDS is a) 10 years. HIV is transmitted through sexual, percutaneous, or perinatal contact. b) 3-6 months. The incubation period for HIV ... than 1 year. d) 5 years. The incubation period for HIV infection is greater than 5 years.

Last Answer : a) 10 years. HIV is transmitted through sexual, percutaneous, or perinatal contact.

A 45-year-old solicitor had an onset of severe, crushing, substernal chest pain while attending a football match. He collapsed on his way to the car. Bystander Cardiorespiratory Resuscitation was begun immediately and continued until arrival in Casualty where an endotracheal tube was inserted and ventilation was maintained on 100% oxygen. Investigations revealed: pH 7.13 PaO2 560 mmHg PaCO2 18 mmHg Bicarbonate 5.8 SaO2 98% Based on these laboratory values, which of the following statements best describes his current pathophysiology? 1) He is demonstrating a primary respiratory alkalosis 2) He probably developed a large right to left intracardiac shunt 3) His anion gap is probably normal 4) His oxyhemoglobin curve is shifted to the left 5) His pulmonary artery pressure is probably elevated

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Last Answer : Answers-5 This young patient with severe central chest pain has probably arrested due to myocardial infarction and arrhythmia. His gases reveal high PO2 following 100% O2 but severe acidosis ... no left to right shunting and high pulmonary pressures would be expected after this arrest scenario.

Read the following five statements (A – E) and answer as asked next to them. (A) In Equisetum, the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte. (B) In Ginkgo, male gametophyte is not independent. (C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than that in Polytrichum. (D) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous. (E) The spores of slime moulds lack cell walls. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) One

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Last Answer : (d) One

How male power in society may lead to sexual abuse?

Description : How male power in society may lead to sexual abuse?

Last Answer : I cannot answer this question.

How male power in society lead sexual abuse?

Description : How male power in society lead sexual abuse?

Last Answer : the male power in society lead sexual abuse is male dominant.

The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures. b) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia. c) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, ... disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Last Answer : a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures.

The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out ... alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.

Last Answer : a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise ... and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

When bowel sounds are heard about every 15 seconds, the nurse would record that the bowel sounds are a) normal. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5-20 seconds. b) hypoactive. Hypoactive bowel sounds is the description given to auscultation of one to two bowel sounds in 2 minutes. c) sluggish. Sluggish is not a term a nurse would use to accurately describe bowel sounds. d) absent. The nurse records that bowel sounds are absent when no sound is heard in 3-5 minutes.

Description : When bowel sounds are heard about every 15 seconds, the nurse would record that the bowel sounds are a) normal. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5-20 seconds. b) hypoactive. Hypoactive bowel sounds ... absent. The nurse records that bowel sounds are absent when no sound is heard in 3-5 minutes.

Last Answer : a) normal. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5-20 seconds.

Which of the following terms describes a gastric secretion that combines with vitamin B-12 so that it can be absorbed? a) Intrinsic factor Lack of intrinsic factor is a common finding in the aged patient. b) Amylase Amylase is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of starch. c) Pepsin Pepsin is a gastric enzyme important in protein digestion. d) Trypsin Trypsin is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of protein.

Description : Which of the following terms describes a gastric secretion that combines with vitamin B-12 so that it can be absorbed? a) Intrinsic factor Lack of intrinsic factor is a common finding in the aged ... in protein digestion. d) Trypsin Trypsin is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of protein.

Last Answer : a) Intrinsic factor Lack of intrinsic factor is a common finding in the aged patient.

Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the position of the patient’s head is changed with respect to gravity. The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.

Description : Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. ... as acetaminophen. BPPV is frequently stimulated by head trauma, infection, or other events.

Last Answer : a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the ... vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.

Which of the following statements describes the clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity (type IV) allergic reaction to latex? a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of exposure, usually the back of the hands. Clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction are localized to the area of exposure.

Description : Which of the following statements describes the clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity (type IV) allergic reaction to latex? a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of ... minutes after exposure to latex, an immediate hypersensitivity (type I) allergic reaction has occurred.

Last Answer : a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of exposure, usually the back of the hands. Clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction are localized to the area of exposure.

Which of the following statements describes accurate information related to chronic illness? a) Most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill. Although some people take on a sick role identity, most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill and try to live

Description : Which of the following statements describes accurate information related to chronic illness? a) Most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill. Although some people ... are easily controlled. Many chronic conditions require therapeutic regimens to keep them under control.

Last Answer : a) Most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill. Although some people take on a sick role identity, most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill and try to live as normal a life as is possible.

Which of the following statements defines culture? a) The learned patterns of behavior, beliefs, and values that can be attributed to a particular group of people. Included among characteristics that distinguish cultural groups are manner of dress, values, artifacts, and health beliefs and practices. b) A group of people distinguished by genetically transmitted material. A group of people distinguished by genetically transmitted material describes the term race.

Description : Which of the following statements defines culture? a) The learned patterns of behavior, beliefs, and values that can be attributed to a particular group of people. Included among ... . The classification of a group based upon certain distinctive characteristics describes the term ethnicity.

Last Answer : a) The learned patterns of behavior, beliefs, and values that can be attributed to a particular group of people. Included among characteristics that distinguish cultural groups are manner of dress, values, artifacts, and health beliefs and practices.

The leading health problems of elementary school children include a) Cancer. The leading health problems of elementary school children are injuries, infections, malnutrition, dental disease, and cancer. b) Alcohol and drug abuse. Alcohol and drug abuse are leading health problems for high school students. c) Mental and emotional problems. Mental and emotional problems are leading health problems for high school students. d) Homicide. Homicide is a leading health problem for high school children.

Description : The leading health problems of elementary school children include a) Cancer. The leading health problems of elementary school children are injuries, infections, malnutrition, dental disease, and cancer. ... school students. d) Homicide. Homicide is a leading health problem for high school children.

Last Answer : a) Cancer. The leading health problems of elementary school children are injuries, infections, malnutrition, dental disease, and cancer.

During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize. b) Promotion During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods. c) Initiation During this first step, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Description : During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and ... of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Last Answer : a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize.

18 years old female weighting 52Kg and 163cm tall. On dental examination erosion of teeth on the most of her lingual surfaces is clearly showing. Dietary history revealed a daily rate of 5000 to 7000 Kcal/day. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Alcoholism B. Drug abuse C. Bulimia D. Excessive smoking E. Diabetic mellitus type I

Description : 18 years old female weighting 52Kg and 163cm tall. On dental examination erosion of teeth on the most of her lingual surfaces is clearly showing. Dietary history revealed a daily rate of 5000 to 7000 ... . Alcoholism B. Drug abuse C. Bulimia D. Excessive smoking E. Diabetic mellitus type I

Last Answer : C. Bulimia

Before the nurse can develop a relevant care plan, the nurse understands that in post-laryngectomy, the trachea and the esophagus are permanently separated. Therefore, which of the following will the nurse expect? A. No risk of aspiration during swallowing; speech is lost B. Normal speaking, breathing and swallowing are restored C. Unable to communicate with difficulty of swallowing and breathing D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

Description : Before the nurse can develop a relevant care plan, the nurse understands that in post-laryngectomy, the trachea and the esophagus are permanently separated. Therefore, which of the ... with difficulty of swallowing and breathing D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

Last Answer : D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost