During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site b) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair during which the new bone is reorganized into the bone’s former structural arrangement. c) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does
callus formation occur?
a) Reparative
Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by
excessive motion at the fracture site
b) Remodeling
Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair during which the new
bone is reorganized into the bone’s former structural arrangement.
c) Inflammation
During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture
area.
d) Revascularization
Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Reparative
Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by
excessive motion at the fracture site
by

Related questions

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of ... occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.

Description : Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft ... and the external soft tissue. Fascia is fibrous tissue that covers, supports, and separates muscles.

Last Answer : a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.

A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. Within the next few days to months, the channels close as a result of the body’s inflammatory process of healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Description : A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. ... e.g., clopidigrel [Plavix]) therapy for 2 weeks and lifetime use of aspirin).

Last Answer : a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. ... healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

Description : A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall. b) results in a pulling away of a ... to the skin or mucous membranes. A compound fracture involves damage to the skin or mucous membranes.

Last Answer : a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to surgery to repair and stabilize a fracture. c) heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification refers to formation of bone in the periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Description : Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to ... periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.

Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

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Last Answer : a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma. b) ... impacted. An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

Last Answer : a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize. b) Promotion During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods. c) Initiation During this first step, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Description : During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and ... of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Last Answer : a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize.

If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Increasing evidence has implicated gram-negative bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS endotoxin) as the portion of the gram-negative bacterial cell membrane responsible for many, if not all the toxic effects that occur during gram-negative bacterial sepsis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning LPS and the host response. a. The LPS molecule can in itself cause physiologic responses similar to that seen during gram-negative bacterial sepsis b. LPS triggers host macrophages to release a variety of cytokines including TNF-a, IL-1a, and IL-1b, IL-6, and IFN-a c. Excessive cytokine production is not associated with detrimental consequences d. TNFa and IL-1b appear to be the primary mediators within the host, exerting deleterious effects on the host when excessive amounts reach the syst

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d The LPS molecule exerts diverse effects on the mammalian host. Immunologic responses to LPS include nonspecific polyclonal B-cell proliferation, macrophage activation and ... deleterious effects on the host only after large amounts are secreted and reach the systemic circulation

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Description : When the nurse reviews the physician's progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle's sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the ... CSF) from the patient's nose. Escape of CSF from the patient's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

Last Answer : a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation. b ... . An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

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A continuous passive motion (CPM) device applied after knee surgery a) promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint. A CPM device applied after knee surgery promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint.

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Last Answer : a) promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint. A CPM device applied after knee surgery promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. b) Stage III A stage III ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

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Last Answer : a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted. b) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted.

When the nurse auscultates chest sounds that are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together, she records her finding as a) pleural friction rub. A pleural friction rub is heard secondary to inflammation and loss of lubricating pleural fluid. b) crackles. Crackles are soft, high-pitched, discontinuous popping sounds that occur during inspiration. c) sonorous wheezes. Sonorous wheezes are deep, low-pitched rumbling sounds heard primarily during expiration. d) sibilant wheezes. Sibilant wheezes are continuous, musical, high-pitched, whistle-like sounds heard during inspiration and expiration.

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Last Answer : a) pleural friction rub. A pleural friction rub is heard secondary to inflammation and loss of lubricating pleural fluid.

Which of the following terms refers to a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent? a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent.

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Last Answer : a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent.

Which of the following statements reflect the progress of bone healing? a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing.

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Last Answer : a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing.

Crohn’s disease is a condition of malabsorption caused by a) inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa. Crohn’s disease is also known as regional enteritis and can occur anywhere along the GI tract, but most commonly at the distal ileum and in the colon.

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Last Answer : a) inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa. Crohn’s disease is also known as regional enteritis and can occur anywhere along the GI tract, but most commonly at the distal ileum and in the colon.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the role of macrophages in the wound healing process? a. Macrophages are the dominant cell type during the inflammatory phase of wound healing b. Macrophages are not essential for wound healing c. The macrophage role in wound healing is limited to phagocytosis d. Macrophages are a source of a number of humoral factors essential for wound healing

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the role of macrophages in the wound healing process? a. Macrophages are the dominant cell type during the inflammatory phase of wound ... phagocytosis d. Macrophages are a source of a number of humoral factors essential for wound healing

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Within three or four days after injury, macrophages become the dominant cell type in the inflammatory phase of wound healing. The role of macrophages is not limited only ... . These studies confirm the dominant role of the macrophage and the inflammatory phase of wound healing

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the management of an open wound? a. Frequent surgical debridement is usually necessary b. Water irrigation can effectively debride most wounds c. Hydrogen peroxide is particularly useful in the management of open wounds d. A number of the newer dressing products have clearly been shown to promote wound healing compared to simple moist occlusive dressing

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the management of an open wound? a. Frequent surgical debridement is usually necessary b. Water irrigation can effectively debride ... products have clearly been shown to promote wound healing compared to simple moist occlusive dressing

Last Answer : Answer: b Although there are numerous dressing products commercially available at present, no treatment has been demonstrated to improve healing beyond that of standard treatment which adheres to basic ... healing is achieved, there has been no evidence that one product is better than another

Which of the following terms is used to describe stone formation in a salivary gland, usually the submandibular gland? a) Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate. b) Parotitis Parotitis refers to inflammation of the parotid gland. c) Sialadenitis Sialadenitis refers to inflammation of the salivary glands. d) Stomatitis Stomatitis refers to inflammation of the oral mucosa.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe stone formation in a salivary gland, usually the submandibular gland? a) Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate. b ... of the salivary glands. d) Stomatitis Stomatitis refers to inflammation of the oral mucosa.

Last Answer : a) Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate.

When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening. b) drainage. Drainage at the site does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. c) tissue sloughing. Sloughing of tissue at the site of injection does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. d) bruising. Bruising of tissue at the site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Description : When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for ... site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Last Answer : a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the remodeling phase of wound healing? a. Total collagen content increases steadily through this phase b. The normal adult ratio of collagen is approximately 4:1 of type I to type III collagen. c. Eventually a scar will achieve the strength of unwounded skin d. The proteoglycans are responsible for the ground substance of the extracellular matrix

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the remodeling phase of wound healing? a. Total collagen content increases steadily through this phase b. The normal adult ratio ... unwounded skin d. The proteoglycans are responsible for the ground substance of the extracellular matrix

Last Answer : Answer: b, d The transition from the proliferative phase to the remodeling phase of wound healing is defined by reaching collagen equilibrium. Collagen accumulation within the wound becomes maximal by ... in strength for six months or more, eventually reaching 70% of the strength of unwounded skin

Which of the following terms refers most precisely to a localized skin infection of a single hair follicle? a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas subjected to irritation, pressure friction, and excessive perspiration, such as the back of the neck, the axillae, or the buttocks.

Description : Which of the following terms refers most precisely to a localized skin infection of a single hair follicle? a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas ... Comedone. Comedones are the primary lesions of acne, caused by sebum blockage in the hair follicle.

Last Answer : a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas subjected to irritation, pressure friction, and excessive perspiration, such as the back of the neck, the axillae, or the buttocks.

Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, characterizes which of the following bone disorders? a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease) results in bone that is highly vascularized and structurally weak, predisposing to pathologic fractures.

Description : Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, characterizes which of the following bone disorders? a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis ... that comes from extension of soft tissue infection, direct bone contamination, or hematogenous spread.

Last Answer : a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease) results in bone that is highly vascularized and structurally weak, predisposing to pathologic fractures.

A post-traumatic seizure classified as early occurs a) within 1-7 days of injury. Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (occurring within 24 hours of injury), early, (occurring within 1-7 days of injury) or late, occurring more than 7 days following injury.

Description : A post-traumatic seizure classified as early occurs a) within 1-7 days of injury. Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (occurring within 24 hours of injury), early, ( ... surgery. Posttraumatic seizures occurring more than 7 days following surgery are classified as late seizures.

Last Answer : a) within 1-7 days of injury. Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (occurring within 24 hours of injury), early, (occurring within 1-7 days of injury) or late, occurring more than 7 days following injury.

56. The nurse is aware that acromegaly is a condition when growth hormone occurs in excess in adulthood or after epiphyses of the long bones have fused. The following are the typical features of the disorder except

Description : 56. The nurse is aware that acromegaly is a condition when growth hormone occurs in excess in adulthood or after epiphyses of the long bones have fused. The following are the typical features of the disorder except

Last Answer : C. The client grows taller

Passive range-of-motion exercises are indicated during which stage of rheumatic disease? a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone during an acute stage of rheumatic disease.

Description : Passive range-of-motion exercises are indicated during which stage of rheumatic disease? a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone ... Active range of motion and isometrics are recommended during the remission stage of rheumatic diseases.

Last Answer : a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone during an acute stage of rheumatic disease.

Nondisjunction of a chromosome results in which of the following diagnoses? a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two copies of a particular chromosome (nondisjunction) Down syndrome results from three number 21 chromosomes. b) Huntingon Disease Huntington disease is one example of a germ-line mutation. c) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an inherited form of muscular dystrophy, is an example of a genetic caused by structural gene mutations. d) Marphan Syndrome Marphan Syndrome is a genetic condition that may occur in a single family member as a result of spontaneous mutation.

Description : Nondisjunction of a chromosome results in which of the following diagnoses? a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two ... genetic condition that may occur in a single family member as a result of spontaneous mutation.

Last Answer : a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two copies of a particular chromosome (nondisjunction) Down syndrome results from three number 21 chromosomes.

For union between stock and scion in grafting which one is the first to occur? (a) Formation of callus (b) Production of plasmodesmata (c) Differentiation of new vascular tissues (d) Regeneration of cortex and epidermis

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Last Answer : (a) Formation of callus

After the initial development stage and in the absence of pathology, the size of the pulp chamber has been reduced by, A. Deposition of primary dentine B. Deposition of secondary dentine C. Reparative dentine D. Pulp fibrosis E. Deposition of reparative dentine

Description : After the initial development stage and in the absence of pathology, the size of the pulp chamber has been reduced by, A. Deposition of primary dentine B. Deposition of secondary dentine C. Reparative dentine D. Pulp fibrosis E. Deposition of reparative dentine

Last Answer : B. Deposition of secondary dentine

Tough question. What happens to the body during the final days of life?

Description : Tough question. What happens to the body during the final days of life?

Last Answer : You have them right except we looked for mottling in their legs. The person loses consciousness as well. All families become so exhausted.

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Of the following terms, which describes a condition characterized by abnormal spongy bone formation around the stapes? a) Otosclerosis Otosclerosis is more common in females than males and is frequently hereditary.

Description : Of the following terms, which describes a condition characterized by abnormal spongy bone formation around the stapes? a) Otosclerosis Otosclerosis is more common in females than males and is ... perforation. d) Otitis externa Otitis externa refers to inflammation of the external auditory canal.

Last Answer : a) Otosclerosis Otosclerosis is more common in females than males and is frequently hereditary.

Which of the following terms refers to a grating or crackling sound or sensation? a) Crepitus Crepitus may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a grating or crackling sound or sensation? a) Crepitus Crepitus may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface. b) ... to rhythmic contraction of muscle. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

Last Answer : a) Crepitus Crepitus may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface.

Which of the following methods of physical examination refers to the translation of physical force into sound? a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound. b) Palpation Palpation refers to examination by non-forceful touching. c) Auscultation Auscultation refers to the skill of listening to sounds produced within the body created by movement of air or fluid. d) Manipulation Manipulation refers to the use of the hands to determine motion of a body part.

Description : Which of the following methods of physical examination refers to the translation of physical force into sound? a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound. b) Palpation ... Manipulation refers to the use of the hands to determine motion of a body part.

Last Answer : a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound.

Which of the following is characteristic feature of Le Fort II fracture Options: 1) The fracture line runs through the root of the nose, lacrimal bone, floor of orbit, upper part of maxillary sinus and pterygoid plates 2) The fracture line runs above and parallel to the palate and crosses lower part of nasal septum, maxillary antra and the pterygoid plates 3) Complete separation of the facial bones from the cranial bones 4) Isolated fracture of orbital floor

Description : Which of the following is characteristic feature of Le Fort II fracture Options: 1) The fracture line runs through the root of the nose, lacrimal bone, floor of orbit, upper part of maxillary ... ) Complete separation of the facial bones from the cranial bones 4) Isolated fracture of orbital floor

Last Answer : Correct Answer: 1) The fracture line runs through the root of the nose, lacrimal bone, floor of orbit, upper part of maxillary sinus and pterygoid plates

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Stage 3 of breast development, according to Tanner, occurs when a) the areola (a darker tissue ring around the nipple) develops. Stage 3 also involves further enlargement of breast tissue.

Description : Stage 3 of breast development, according to Tanner, occurs when a) the areola (a darker tissue ring around the nipple) develops. Stage 3 also involves further enlargement of breast tissue. b) ... In stage 5, the female demonstrates continued development of a larger breast with a single contour.

Last Answer : a) the areola (a darker tissue ring around the nipple) develops. Stage 3 also involves further enlargement of breast tissue.

A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the a) distal radius. A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius (wrist). It is usually the result of a fall on an open, dorsiflexed hand.

Description : A Colles' fracture is a fracture of the a) distal radius. A Colles' fracture is a fracture of the distal radius (wrist). It is usually the result of a fall on an open, dorsiflexed hand. b) elbow ... a fracture of the distal radius. d) clavicle. A Colles' fracture is a fracture of the distal radius.

Last Answer : a) distal radius. A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius (wrist). It is usually the result of a fall on an open, dorsiflexed hand.

The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

Description : The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in ... severe, burning pain, local edema, hyperesthesia, muscle spasms, and vasomotor skin changes.

Last Answer : a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Description : The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly ... following a basal skull fracture. The halo sign is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Last Answer : a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. b) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. c) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period. d) Downward The downward phase occurs when symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Description : In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under ... symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Last Answer : a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed.

When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly. b) pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is associated with immobility. c) dehydration. Dehydration may lead to poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Description : When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The ... poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Last Answer : a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly.

When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulations, the wound healing is termed a) second intention healing. When wounds dehisce, they will be allowed to heal by secondary intention. b) primary intention healing. Primary or first intention healing is the method of healing in which wound edges are surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored without granulating.

Description : When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulations, the wound healing is termed a) ... of wound edges is delayed and integumentary continuity is restored by bringing apposing granulations together.

Last Answer : a) second intention healing. When wounds dehisce, they will be allowed to heal by secondary intention.

When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity. b) Vital capacity The nurse anticipates decreased vital capacity. c) Gas exchange and diffusing capacity The nurse anticipates decreased gas exchange and diffusing capacity resulting in impaired healing of tissues due to decreased oxygenation. d) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Description : When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue ... ) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Last Answer : a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity.

Which of the following terms is used to refer to inflammation of the renal pelvis? a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to refer to inflammation of the renal pelvis? a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic. ... inflammation of the urethra. d) Interstitial nephritis Interstitial nephritis is inflammation of the kidney.

Last Answer : a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic.