Which of the following connective tissue disorders is characterized by insoluble collagen being formed and accumulating excessively in the tissues? a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in death.

Which of the following connective tissue disorders is
characterized by insoluble collagen being formed and accumulating
excessively in the tissues?
a) Scleroderma
Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood
vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in
death.
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis results from an autoimmune response in the
synovial tissue with damage taking place in body joints.
c) Systemic lupus erythematosus
SLE is an immunoregulatory disturbance that results in increased
autoantibody production.
d) Polymyalgia rheumatic
In polymyalgia rheumatic, immunoglobulin is deposited in the walls of
inflamed temporal arteries.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Scleroderma
Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood
vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in
death.
by

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This major protein component of connective tissue in mammals comprises most of the organic matter of skin, tendons, bones, and teeth, and occurs as fibrous inclusions in most other body structures. Is this material: a) elastin b) collagen c) fatty acids d) keratin

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During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted. b) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

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When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity. b) Vital capacity The nurse anticipates decreased vital capacity. c) Gas exchange and diffusing capacity The nurse anticipates decreased gas exchange and diffusing capacity resulting in impaired healing of tissues due to decreased oxygenation. d) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

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Yellow fibrous connective tissue is found in : - a. Renal capsule b. True vocal cords c. Walls of blood vessels d. Epimysium

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The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of (a) smooth muscle tissue (b) squamous epithelium (c) columnar epithelium (d) connective tissue.

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What is the function of the collagen fibers of the connective tissue?

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Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them. A B C D A B C D (a) Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen Mast fibres cell (b) Mast cell Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres (c) Macrophage Collagen Fibroblast Mast cell fibres (d) Mast cell Collagen Fibroblast Macro- fibres phage

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Which of the phases of a migraine headache usually lasts less than an hour? a) Aura The aura phase occurs in about 20% of patients who have migraines and may be characterized by focal neurological symptoms.

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Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia. b) Sinus tachycardia Sinus tachycardia occurs when the sinus node regularly creates an impulse at a faster-than-normal rate. c) Atrial flutter Atrial flutter occurs in the atrium and creates an atrial rate between 250-400 times per minute. d) Atrial fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

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The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. b) barrel chest. A barrel chest is seen in patients with emphysema as a result of overinflation of the lungs. c) funnel chest. A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum. d) kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

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A history of infection specifically caused by group A betahemolytic streptococci is associated with which of the following disorders? a) Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is also associated with varicella zoster virus, hepatitis B, and Epstein-Barr virus.

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Assertion: Cartilage and bone are rigid connective tissues. Reason: Blood is a connective tissue.

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Which of the following devices is designed specifically to support and immobilize a body part in a desired position? a) Splint A splint may be applied to a fractured extremity initially until swelling subsides.

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Which of the following “awareness contexts” is characterized by the patient, the family, and the health care professionals being aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise? a) Mutual pretense awareness In mutual pretense awareness, the patient, the family and the health care professionals are aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise. b) Closed awareness In closed awareness, the patient is unaware of his terminality in a context where others are aware. c) Suspected awareness In suspected awareness, the patient suspects what others know and attempts to find it out. d) Open awareness In open awareness, all are aware that the patient is dying and are able to openly acknowledge that reality.

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Of the following disorders, which results from excessive secretion of somatotropin? a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

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The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, represent four different types of animal tissues. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and function? (A) (B) (C) (D) Tissue Location Function (a) (B) Glandular Intestine Secretion epithelium (b) (C) Collagen Cartilage Attach skeletal fibres muscles to bones(c) (D) Smooth Heart Heart muscle contraction tissue (d) (A) Columnar Nephron Secretion epithelium and absorption

Description : The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, represent four different types of animal tissues. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its ... Smooth Heart Heart muscle contraction tissue (d) (A) Columnar Nephron Secretion epithelium and absorption

Last Answer : (a) (B) Glandular Intestine Secretion epithelium

The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.

Description : The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent ... . The triage category of immediate refers to non-acute, non-lifethreatening injury or illness.

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During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

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Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening. b) drainage. Drainage at the site does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. c) tissue sloughing. Sloughing of tissue at the site of injection does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. d) bruising. Bruising of tissue at the site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Description : When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for ... site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Last Answer : a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening.

Which of the following terms refers to muscle tension being unchanged with muscle shortening and joint motion? a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic. b) Isometric contraction Isometric contraction is characterized by increased muscle tension, unchanged muscle length, and no joint motion. c) Contracture Contracture refers to abnormal shortening of muscle, joint, or both. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to muscle tension being unchanged with muscle shortening and joint motion? a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic. b) ... , joint, or both. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

Last Answer : a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic.

Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs. b) Labile Labile cells multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes. c) Permanent Permanent cells include neurons — the nerve cell bodies, not their axons. Destruction of a neuron causes permanent loss, but axons may regenerate. d) Epithelial Epithelial cells are a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Description : Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the ... a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Last Answer : a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs.