Stage 3 of breast development, according to Tanner, occurs when a) the areola (a darker tissue ring around the nipple) develops. Stage 3 also involves further enlargement of breast tissue.

Stage 3 of breast development, according to Tanner, occurs
when
a) the areola (a darker tissue ring around the nipple) develops.
Stage 3 also involves further enlargement of breast tissue.
b) breast budding begins.
Breast budding is the first sign of puberty in a female.
c) the areola and nipple form a secondary mound on top of breast
tissue.
In stage 4, the nipple and areola form a secondary mound on top of
breast tissue.
d) the breast develops into a single contour
In stage 5, the female demonstrates continued development of a
larger breast with a single contour.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) the areola (a darker tissue ring around the nipple) develops.
Stage 3 also involves further enlargement of breast tissue.
by

Related questions

When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of a) Paget’s disease. Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of nipple and areola. b) acute mastitis. Acute mastitis is demonstrated by nipple cracks or abrasions along with reddened and warm breast skin and tenderness.

Description : When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of a) Paget's disease. Paget's disease ... the breast and demonstrates an orange peel apearance of breast skin with enlargement of skin pores.

Last Answer : a) Paget’s disease. Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of nipple and areola.

Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor’s office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid for analysis. It has been shown to identify atypical cells in this population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

Description : Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline ... risk for benign proliferative breast disease; it is not specific for women with breast implants.

Last Answer : a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid ... population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

An increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue that is reversible when the stimulus for production of new cells is removed is termed a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement. b) Hypertrophy. Hypertrophy is an increase in size and bulk of tissue that does not result from an increased number of cells. c) Atrophy. Atrophy refers to reduction in size of a structure after having come to full maturity. d) Neoplasia. With neoplasia, the increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue continues after the stimulus is removed.

Description : An increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue that is reversible when the stimulus for production of new cells is removed is termed a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply ... in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue continues after the stimulus is removed.

Last Answer : a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement.

Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b) tolerance to opioids is uncommon. Tolerance to opioids is common. c) addiction to opioids commonly develops. Addiction to opioids is rare. d) the nurse must be primarily concerned about development of addiction by the patient in pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Description : Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b ... pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Last Answer : a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of ... occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. b) Stage III A stage III ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

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Last Answer : a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted. b) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted.

Which of the following connective tissue disorders is characterized by insoluble collagen being formed and accumulating excessively in the tissues? a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in death.

Description : Which of the following connective tissue disorders is characterized by insoluble collagen being formed and accumulating excessively in the tissues? a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the ... In polymyalgia rheumatic, immunoglobulin is deposited in the walls of inflamed temporal arteries.

Last Answer : a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in death.

Of the following disorders, which results from excessive secretion of somatotropin? a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

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Last Answer : a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

When the nurse observes the patient’s urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

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Last Answer : a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

The 2000 NIH Consensus Development Conference Statement states that what percentage of women with invasive breast cancer should consider the option of systemic chemotherapy, not just women whose tumors are greater than 1cm in size? a) 100% (all) The 2000 Consensus Development Conference Statement states that all women with invasive breast cancer should consider the option of systemic chemotherapy, not just women whose tumors are greater than 1 cm in size.

Description : The 2000 NIH Consensus Development Conference Statement states that what percentage of women with invasive breast cancer should consider the option of systemic chemotherapy, not just women whose tumors are ... of systemic chemotherapy, not just women whose tumors are greater than 1 cm in size.

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A specific BRCA1 cancer-predisposing gene mutation seems to occur more frequently among women of which descent? a) Ashkanazi Jewish Expression of the BRCA1 gene is an example of inheritance in the development of breast cancer. b) Mediterranean Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) is a common enzyme abnormality that affects millions of people throughout the world, especially those of Mediterranean, South East Asian, African, Middle Eastern, and Near Eastern origin.

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During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site b) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair during which the new bone is reorganized into the bone’s former structural arrangement. c) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

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Last Answer : a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site

Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.

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Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

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When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening. b) drainage. Drainage at the site does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. c) tissue sloughing. Sloughing of tissue at the site of injection does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. d) bruising. Bruising of tissue at the site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Description : When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for ... site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Last Answer : a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening.

Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

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The development stage of a plant after which no further increase in dry matter occurs in the economic part is known as

Description : The development stage of a plant after which no further increase in dry matter occurs in the economic part is known as

Last Answer : Ans.Physiological maturity (II) Modern Concepts of Tillage

Can you breast-feed with nipple piercings?

Description : Can you breast-feed with nipple piercings?

Last Answer : no

Can you breast-feed with nipple piercings?

Description : Can you breast-feed with nipple piercings?

Last Answer : no

Which of the following manifestations is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia? a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia. b) Hypotension Hypotension is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia. c) Elevated temperature The rise in temperature is actually a late sign that develops rapidly. d) Oliguria Scant urinary output is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia.

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Last Answer : a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia.

60. Acromegaly often develops insidiously that nurses should understand that the client with this disorder would seek medical care because of

Description : 60. Acromegaly often develops insidiously that nurses should understand that the client with this disorder would seek medical care because of

Last Answer : C. Changes in appearance

Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called ... of tissue by freezing. c) Perineorrhaphy Perineorrhaphy refers to sutural repair of perineal lacerations.

Last Answer : a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

What should I do with about 30 pints of frozen breast milk?

Description : What should I do with about 30 pints of frozen breast milk?

Last Answer : Well, do you have cats?

The nurse recognizes which of the following statements as accurately reflecting a risk factor for breast cancer? a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases twofold if first-degree female relatives (sister, mother, or daughter) had breast cancer.

Description : The nurse recognizes which of the following statements as accurately reflecting a risk factor for breast cancer? a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases ... in women who consume even one drink daily and doubles among women drinking three drinks daily.

Last Answer : a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases twofold if first-degree female relatives (sister, mother, or daughter) had breast cancer.

The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE) a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.

Description : The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE) a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed ... retention before their menstrual period, BSE is best performed when the time for menses is taken into account.

Last Answer : a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.

My lymph nodes are swollen on the right side of my neck and also tender around the chest nipple area, what antibiotics may help these symptoms?

Description : My lymph nodes are swollen on the right side of my neck and also tender around the chest nipple area, what antibiotics may help these symptoms?

Last Answer : why oh why do people think we need antibiotics for everything?!

Thrombolytic therapy has become a useful adjunct in the management of peripheral arterial occlusion. In this setting, direct intraarterial administration rather than intravenous has been advocated to decrease the risk of systemic bleeding. Which of the following true statement(s) concerning the use of thrombolytic agents for arterial occlusion is/are true? a. A standard technique involves infusing high-dose urokinase, 4000 units per minute for 1–2 hours, directly into the clot by a catheter embedded in the thrombus b. If progress is made, further fibrinolytic therapy is given at 1000 to 2000 units per minute until clot lysis has occurred c. The usual infusion time by the above-stated technique is usually in excess of 24 hours d. Successful clot lysis occurs more frequently in arterial graf

Description : Thrombolytic therapy has become a useful adjunct in the management of peripheral arterial occlusion. In this setting, direct intraarterial administration rather than intravenous has been advocated ... may be indicated for situations where complete clot evacuation cannot be accomplished surgically

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, e The most popular method for intraarterial thrombolytic therapy for arterial occlusion involves passing a guidewire through the thrombus with arteriographic guidance and ... acute arterial occlusion) or when distal vasculative is occluded and precludes appropriate inflow patency

Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away? a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects. b) Presbycusis Presbycusis refers to age-related hearing loss. c) Cataract Cataract is the development of opacity of the lens of the eye. d) Glaucoma Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away? a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in ... lens of the eye. d) Glaucoma Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

Last Answer : a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects.

What's the best way to remove a nipple ring after 10 years?

Description : What's the best way to remove a nipple ring after 10 years?

Last Answer : Time machine, dude. Travel back in time and never put it in in the first place.

Fibromyalgia is a common condition that a) involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching and stiffness. Fibromyalgia, is a common condition that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness.

Description : Fibromyalgia is a common condition that a) involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching and stiffness. Fibromyalgia, is a common condition that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and ... very typical for patients to have endured their symptoms for a long period of time.

Last Answer : a) involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching and stiffness. Fibromyalgia, is a common condition that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness.

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complexes formed when antigens bind to antibodies? a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, certain types of nephritis, and some types of bacterial endocarditis.

Description : Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complexes formed when antigens bind to antibodies? a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid ... , or delayed-type, hypersensitivity occurs 24-72 hours after exposure to an allergen.

Last Answer : a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, certain types of nephritis, and some types of bacterial endocarditis.

A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein. b) air plethysmography Air plethysmography quantifies venous reflux and calf muscle pump ejection.

Description : A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x ... d) lymphoscintigraphy. In lymphoscintigraphy, a radioactive-labeled colloid is injected into the lymph system.

Last Answer : a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein.

A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. Within the next few days to months, the channels close as a result of the body’s inflammatory process of healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Description : A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. ... e.g., clopidigrel [Plavix]) therapy for 2 weeks and lifetime use of aspirin).

Last Answer : a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. ... healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Which skill needed by the nurse to think critically involves identification of patient problems indicated by data? a) Analysis Analysis is used to identify patient problems indicated by data. b) Interpretation Interpretation is used to determine the significance of data that is gathered. c) Inferencing Inferences are used by the nurse to draw conclusions. d) Explanation Explanation is the justification of actions or interventions used to address patient problems and to help a patient move toward desired outcomes.

Description : Which skill needed by the nurse to think critically involves identification of patient problems indicated by data? a) Analysis Analysis is used to identify patient problems indicated by data. b) ... or interventions used to address patient problems and to help a patient move toward desired outcomes.

Last Answer : a) Analysis Analysis is used to identify patient problems indicated by data.

Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for stimulating the production of progesterone? a) Luteinizing hormone Luteinizing hormone is released by the pituitary gland. b) Follicle-stimulating hormone Follicle-stimulating hormone is responsible for stimulating the ovaries to secrete estrogen. c) Estrogen Estrogens are responsible for developing and maintaining the female reproductive tract. d) Androgen Androgens, secreted in small amounts by the ovaries, are involved in early development of the follicle and also affect the female libido.

Description : Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for stimulating the production of progesterone? a) Luteinizing hormone Luteinizing hormone is released by the pituitary gland. b) Follicle-stimulating ... , are involved in early development of the follicle and also affect the female libido.

Last Answer : a) Luteinizing hormone Luteinizing hormone is released by the pituitary gland.

Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors. b) Occupational exposure While a risk factor, occupational exposure is not the most important risk factor for development of COPD. c) Air pollution Air pollution is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor. d) Genetic abnormalities A deficiency of alpha-antitrypsin is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor.

Description : Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors. b) ... is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor.

Last Answer : a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors.

Are there problems breasfeeding if you have scar tissue from a former nipple piercing?

Description : Are there problems breasfeeding if you have scar tissue from a former nipple piercing?

Last Answer : I think this is a good and important question for women who may one day be interested in breast feeding (which I will add, all new mothers should do for their children and themselves.) I have no idea of the answer, but thank you for the question. Hopefully, others will know the answer.

Which of the following procedures most specifically describes splitting or separating fused cardiac valve leaflets? a) Commisurotomy Commisurotomy is frequently used for mitral stenosis. b) Annuloplasty Annuloplasty refers to repair of a cardiac valve’s outer ring. c) Chordoplasty Chordoplasty refers to repair of the chordae tendonae of atroventricular valve leaflets. d) Valvuloplasty Valvuloplasty is a general term that refers to repair of a stenosed or regurgitant cardiac valve by commisurotomy, annuloplasty, leaflet repair, and/or chordoplasty.

Description : Which of the following procedures most specifically describes splitting or separating fused cardiac valve leaflets? a) Commisurotomy Commisurotomy is frequently used for mitral stenosis. b) ... or regurgitant cardiac valve by commisurotomy, annuloplasty, leaflet repair, and/or chordoplasty.

Last Answer : a) Commisurotomy Commisurotomy is frequently used for mitral stenosis.

Passive range-of-motion exercises are indicated during which stage of rheumatic disease? a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone during an acute stage of rheumatic disease.

Description : Passive range-of-motion exercises are indicated during which stage of rheumatic disease? a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone ... Active range of motion and isometrics are recommended during the remission stage of rheumatic diseases.

Last Answer : a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone during an acute stage of rheumatic disease.

More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates which stage of HIV infection? a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic.

Description : More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates which stage of HIV infection? a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic. b) ... CDC category C - AIDS Less than 200 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category C - AIDS.

Last Answer : a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic.

During which stage of the immune response does the circulating lymphocyte containing the antigenic message return to the nearest lymph node? a) Proliferation Once in the node, the sensitized lymphocyte stimulates some of the resident dormant T and B lymphocytes to enlarge, divide, and proliferate.

Description : During which stage of the immune response does the circulating lymphocyte containing the antigenic message return to the nearest lymph node? a) Proliferation Once in the node, the sensitized lymphocyte ... cellular response reaches and couples with the antigen on the surface of the foreign invader.

Last Answer : a) Proliferation Once in the node, the sensitized lymphocyte stimulates some of the resident dormant T and B lymphocytes to enlarge, divide, and proliferate.

Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods. b) Stenosis Mitral valve stenosis usually causes progressive fatigue. c) Regurgitation Mitral valve regurgitation, in its acute stage, usually presents as severe heart failure. d) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Description : Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more ... ) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Last Answer : a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods.

In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) < 30%? a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure b) II Stage II patients demonstrate FEV1 between > 30% and 80% c) I Stage I is mild COPD with FEV1 < 70%. d) O Stage O is characterized by normal spirometry

Description : In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) < 30%? a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure b) II Stage II ... I Stage I is mild COPD with FEV1 < 70%. d) O Stage O is characterized by normal spirometry

Last Answer : a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure

Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the patient breathes in the anesthetic mixture and experiences warmth, dizziness, and a feeling of detachment. c) II Stage II is the excitement stage, which may be characterized by struggling, singing, laughing, or crying. d) IV Stage IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Description : Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the ... IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Last Answer : a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours.