Of the following neurotransmitters, which demonstrates inhibitory action, helps control mood and sleep, and inhibits pain pathways? a) Serotonin The sources of serotonin are the brain stem, hypothalamus, and dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

Of the following neurotransmitters, which demonstrates
inhibitory action, helps control mood and sleep, and inhibits pain
pathways?
a) Serotonin
The sources of serotonin are the brain stem, hypothalamus, and dorsal
horn of the spinal cord.
b) Enkephalin
Enkephalin is excitatory and associated with pleasurable sensations.
c) Norepinephrine
Norepinephrine is usually excitatory and affects mood and overall
activity.
d) Acetylcholine
Acetylcholine is usually excitatory, but the parasympathetic effects are
sometimes inhibitory.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Serotonin
The sources of serotonin are the brain stem, hypothalamus, and dorsal
horn of the spinal cord.
by

Related questions

The following are true about pain: a. in disseminated cancer can be effectively relieved by hypophysectomy b. does not ascend through the dorsal column of the spinal cord c. is transmitted faster through the C fibres than the A delta fibres d. stimulation of the ß receptors in the brain produces analgesia

Description : The following are true about pain: a. in disseminated cancer can be effectively relieved by hypophysectomy b. does not ascend through the dorsal column of the spinal cord c. is transmitted faster ... fibres than the A delta fibres d. stimulation of the ß receptors in the brain produces analgesia

Last Answer : stimulation of the ß receptors in the brain produces analgesia

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Last Answer : a) Multiple sclerosis The cause of MS is not known and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and ... The pia mater is the innermost membrane of the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord.

Last Answer : a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

The following are true about the spinal cord: a. segment T12 lies at the level of vertebral body T9 b. cerebrospinal fluid is found within the subdural space c. two point discrimination is transmitted in the dorsal column d. hemisection results in contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense below the lesio

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A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front on opening the door. Which one of the following is likely to happen in his neuro- hormonal control system? (a) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal medulla. (b) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse. (c) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic division of brain. (d) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal cortex.

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A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front on opening the door. Which one of the following is likely to happen in his neuro-hormonal control system ? (1) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrin and norepinephrin from adrenal cortex (2) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrin and norepinephrin from adrenal medulla (3) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse (4) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic division of brain

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Of the following stimuli, which is known to trigger an episode of autonomic hyperreflexia in the patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury? a) Applying a blanket over the patient An object on the skin or skin pressure may precipitate an autonomic hyperreflexic episode.

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The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures. b) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia. c) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

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The tubular and dorsal nervous system of chordates is related to the cephalization in these animals and to bilateral symmetry. The presence of neural integrating centers with concentration of neurons in the brains and the spinal cord (central nervous system, CNS) allowed the increase of the interaction complexity between these animals and the environment. Receptor (afferent conduction) and efferent (motor, regulatory and behavioral reactions) functions come out more sophisticated in chordates due to the presence of more well-developed neural networks. These features have been preserved by evolution as they provide adaptive advantage to their owners.

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Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord would result in loss of (a) commissural impulses (b) integrating impulses (c) sensory impulses (d) voluntary motor impulses

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C fibres transmitting pain sensation a. are present in less numbers than A fibres in sensory nerves b. conduct at an average velocity of 2 metres/secon c. convey temperature sensation d. terminate in laminae 2 and 3 of the dorsal horn

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Reflex actions in head region are under the control of------? A. Brain (Answer) B. Spinal cord

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Poisons like cyanide inhibit Na+ efflux and K+ influx during cellular transport. This inhibitory effect is reversed by an injection of ATP. This demonstrates that (a) ATP is the carrier protein in the transport system (b) energy for Na+-K+ exchange pump comes from ATP (c) ATP is hydrolysed by ATPase to release energy (d) Na+-K+ exchange pump operates in the cell.

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Which of the following phases of psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks? a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, hyperalertness, and psychosomatic reactions, in addition to fear and flashbacks.

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When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

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When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation.

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When the nurse notes that the patient’s left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) hammertoe. Hammertoes are usually pulled upward. c) pes cavus. Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

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A patient who demonstrates an obtunded level of consciousness a) sleeps almost constantly but can be aroused and can follow simple commands. An obtunded patient stays awake only with persistent stimulation.

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Which of the following terms refers to the absence of the natural lens? a) Aphakia When a cataract is extracted, and an intraocular lens implant is not used, the patient demonstrates aphakia.

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Last Answer : a) Aphakia When a cataract is extracted, and an intraocular lens implant is not used, the patient demonstrates aphakia.

The nurse teaches the patient who demonstrates herpes zoster (shingles) that a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox) virus and reflects lowered immunity.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient who demonstrates herpes zoster (shingles) that a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a ... is arrested if oral antiviral agents are administered within 24 hours of the initial eruption.

Last Answer : a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox) virus and reflects lowered immunity.

The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

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The nurse reading the physician’s report of an elderly patient’s physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

Description : The nurse reading the physician's report of an elderly patient's physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is ... red moles. Cherry angioma is the term that is used to describe a bright red mole.

Last Answer : a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of a) Paget’s disease. Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of nipple and areola. b) acute mastitis. Acute mastitis is demonstrated by nipple cracks or abrasions along with reddened and warm breast skin and tenderness.

Description : When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of a) Paget's disease. Paget's disease ... the breast and demonstrates an orange peel apearance of breast skin with enlargement of skin pores.

Last Answer : a) Paget’s disease. Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of nipple and areola.

Of the following disorders, which results from excessive secretion of somatotropin? a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

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Which of the following disorders is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a) Cushing’s syndrome The patient with Cushing’s syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

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Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

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When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

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Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects which of the following electrolyte imbalances? a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Description : When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects ... and QT intervals, broad flat T waves), disorientation, depression, and hypotension.

Last Answer : a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient’s serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves). b) Hypercalcemia Hypercalcemia would likely be demonstrated by asystole. c) Hypomagnesemia Hypomagenesemia would likely be demonstrated by hypotension, lethargy, and vasodilation. d) Hyponatremia Hyponatremia would likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation

Description : When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient's serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia ... likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation

Last Answer : a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves).

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

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Which of the following community-acquired pneumonias demonstrates the highest occurrence during summer and fall? a) Legionnaires’ disease Legionnaires’ disease accounts for 15% of community-acquired pneumonias. b) Streptococcal (pneumococcal) pneumonia Streptococcal pneumonia demonstrates the highest occurrence in winter months. c) Mycoplasma pneumonia Mycoplasma pneumonia demonstrates the highest occurrence in fall and early winter. d) Viral pneumonia Viral pneumonia demonstrates the greatest incidence during winter months.

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The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. b) barrel chest. A barrel chest is seen in patients with emphysema as a result of overinflation of the lungs. c) funnel chest. A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum. d) kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

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Last Answer : a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis.

A malignant tumor a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body. b) demonstrates cells that are well-differentiated. Cells of malignant tumors are undifferentiated. c) is usually slow growing. Malignant tumors demonstrate variable rate of growth; however, the more anaplastic the tumor, the faster its growth. d) grows by expansion. A malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.

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A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein. b) air plethysmography Air plethysmography quantifies venous reflux and calf muscle pump ejection.

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Last Answer : a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein.

Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system? (a) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amounts that act as intercellular messenger are known as hormones. (b) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland. (c) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus. (d) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones.

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Which disease is characterised by inflammation of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord? -General Knowledge

Description : Which disease is characterised by inflammation of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord? -General Knowledge

Last Answer : The answer is 'Meningitis'

Which disease is characterised by inflammation of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord? -General Knowledge

Description : Which disease is characterised by inflammation of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord? -General Knowledge

Last Answer : answer:

Nerves carry messages from different parts of the body to the brain or the spinal cord?

Description : Nerves carry messages from different parts of the body to the brain or the spinal cord?

Last Answer : Shrek

What is the difference between a brain and a spinal cord ?

Description : What is the difference between a brain and a spinal cord ?

Last Answer : The spinal cord is located in the spinal cord , and the brain is located inside the skull. The brain is protected by the skull. The spinal cord is protected by the spine. The brain is divided ... nervous thought , intelligence, etc. , and the spinal cord acts in an instantaneous response.

Which one connects the brain to the spinal cord ?

Last Answer : The medulla that connects the brain to the spinal cord.

Fibromyalgie: nemoc centr. nervous system, brain and spinal cord

Description : Whoever wants can advise the sick here

Last Answer : Abroad, cooperation and mutual assistance of patients with the same diagnosis is common, in the Czech Republic this type of communication is still lacking. These support groups serve as a source of information and ... home is good (fried tarantulas are good too - and do you eat them?). (tuxedo)