Of the following stimuli, which is known to trigger an episode of autonomic hyperreflexia in the patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury? a) Applying a blanket over the patient An object on the skin or skin pressure may precipitate an autonomic hyperreflexic episode.

Of the following stimuli, which is known to trigger an episode of
autonomic hyperreflexia in the patient who has suffered a spinal
cord injury?
a) Applying a blanket over the patient
An object on the skin or skin pressure may precipitate an autonomic
hyperreflexic episode.
b) Diarrhea
In general, constipation or fecal impaction triggers autonomic
hyperreflexia.
c) Placing the patient in a sitting position
When the patient is observed to be demonstrating signs of autonomic
hyperreflexia, he is placed in a sitting position immediately to lower
blood pressure.
d) Voiding
The most common cause of autonomic hyperreflexia is a distended
bladder.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Applying a blanket over the patient
An object on the skin or skin pressure may precipitate an autonomic
hyperreflexic episode.
by

Related questions

The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures. b) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia. c) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, ... disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Last Answer : a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures.

When the emergency nurse learns that the patient suffered injury from a flash flame, the nurse anticipates which depth of burn? a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a second-degree burn and is associated with scalds and flash flames.

Description : When the emergency nurse learns that the patient suffered injury from a flash flame, the nurse anticipates which depth of burn? a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a ... Injury from a flash flame is not associated with a burn that is limited to the epidermis.

Last Answer : a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a second-degree burn and is associated with scalds and flash flames.

Which of the following diseases is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord? a) Multiple sclerosis The cause of MS is not known and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

Description : Which of the following diseases is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and ... the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

Last Answer : a) Multiple sclerosis The cause of MS is not known and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

Autonomic hyperreflexia?

Description : Autonomic hyperreflexia?

Last Answer : DefinitionAutonomic hyperreflexia is a reaction of the autonomic (involuntary) nervous system to overstimulation. This reaction may include high blood pressure, change in heart rate, skin color changes (paleness ... hemorrhage (a form of brain bleeding), severe head trauma, and other brain i

General anaesthetics produce immobility in response to painful surgical stimuli by acting primarily at the: A. Motor cortex B. Basal ganglia C. Thalamus D. Spinal cord

Description : General anaesthetics produce immobility in response to painful surgical stimuli by acting primarily at the: A. Motor cortex B. Basal ganglia C. Thalamus D. Spinal cord

Last Answer : D. Spinal cord

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Description : When the nurse reviews the physician's progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle's sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the ... CSF) from the patient's nose. Escape of CSF from the patient's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

Last Answer : a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and ... The pia mater is the innermost membrane of the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord.

Last Answer : a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

Of the following neurotransmitters, which demonstrates inhibitory action, helps control mood and sleep, and inhibits pain pathways? a) Serotonin The sources of serotonin are the brain stem, hypothalamus, and dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

Description : Of the following neurotransmitters, which demonstrates inhibitory action, helps control mood and sleep, and inhibits pain pathways? a) Serotonin The sources of serotonin are the brain ... d) Acetylcholine Acetylcholine is usually excitatory, but the parasympathetic effects are sometimes inhibitory.

Last Answer : a) Serotonin The sources of serotonin are the brain stem, hypothalamus, and dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

All of the following are true about neurogenic shock except: A. There is a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and an increase in venous capacitance. B. Tachycardia or bradycardia may be observed, along with hypotension. C. The use of an alpha agonist such as phenylephrine is the mainstay of treatment. D. Severe head injury, spinal cord injury, and high spinal anesthesia may all cause neurogenic shock.

Description : All of the following are true about neurogenic shock except: A. There is a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and an increase in venous capacitance. B. Tachycardia or bradycardia may be ... Severe head injury, spinal cord injury, and high spinal anesthesia may all cause neurogenic shock.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Neurogenic shock occurs when severe head injury, spinal cord injury, or pharmacologic sympathetic blockade leads to sympathetic denervation and loss of vasomotor tone. ... of treatment. The use of alpha-adrenergic agonist is infrequently necessary to treat neurogenic shock

Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Description : Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP ... regarded as unfavorable because hyperthermia may indicate brain stem damage, a poor prognostic sign.

Last Answer : a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

A 32-year-old man suffers a spinal cord injury with a resultant paraplegia in a motorcycle accident. He presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his diagnosis and management? a. The low blood pressure can be assumed to be due to neurogenic shock b. The sole cause of hypotension is the loss of sympathetic input to the venous system c. Despite significant hypotension, secondary organ injury will be uncommon d. There is no role for pharmacologic intervention to maintain blood pressure

Description : A 32-year-old man suffers a spinal cord injury with a resultant paraplegia in a motorcycle accident. He presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/ ... injury will be uncommon d. There is no role for pharmacologic intervention to maintain blood pressure

Last Answer : Answer: c Neurogenic shock results from interruption of sympathetic vasomotor input and develops after spinal cord injury, spinal anesthesia, and severe head injury. Under normal conditions, baseline ... the cause is not neurogenic and search for occult blood loss or cardiogenic causes of shock

Which of the following terms is given to hypertension in which the blood pressure, which is controlled with therapy, becomes uncontrolled (abnormally high) with the discontinuation of therapy? a) Rebound Rebound hypertension may precipitate a hypertensive crisis. b) Essential Essential or primary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an unidentified source. c) Primary Essential or primary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an unidentified source. d) Secondary Secondary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an identified cause, such as renal disease.

Description : Which of the following terms is given to hypertension in which the blood pressure, which is controlled with therapy, becomes uncontrolled (abnormally high) with the discontinuation of therapy? ... Secondary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an identified cause, such as renal disease.

Last Answer : a) Rebound Rebound hypertension may precipitate a hypertensive crisis.

The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.

Description : The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent ... . The triage category of immediate refers to non-acute, non-lifethreatening injury or illness.

Last Answer : a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.

Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate when caring for the awake and oriented head injury patient? a) Supply oxygen therapy to keep blood gas values within normal range. The goal is to keep blood gas values within normal range to ensure adequate cerebral circulation.

Description : Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate when caring for the awake and oriented head injury patient? a) Supply oxygen therapy to keep blood gas values within normal range. ... rails and application of mitts are the appropriate interventions in the agitated head-injured patient.

Last Answer : a) Supply oxygen therapy to keep blood gas values within normal range. The goal is to keep blood gas values within normal range to ensure adequate cerebral circulation.

The most important intervention in the nutritional support of a patient with a burn injury is to provide adequate nutrition and calories to: a) decrease catabolism. The most important intervention in the nutritional support of a patient with a burn injury is to provide adequate nutrition and calories to decrease catabolism. Nutritional support with optimized protein intake can decrease the protein losses by approximately 50%.

Description : The most important intervention in the nutritional support of a patient with a burn injury is to provide adequate nutrition and calories to: a) decrease catabolism. The most important intervention ... the energy source is seen after a burn injury; interventions are instituted to decrease catabolism.

Last Answer : a) decrease catabolism. The most important intervention in the nutritional support of a patient with a burn injury is to provide adequate nutrition and calories to decrease catabolism. Nutritional support with optimized protein intake can decrease the protein losses by approximately 50%.

Is there any justification or scenario that you can imagine that would explain someone in handcuffs in police custody sustaining a spinal cord injury?

Description : Is there any justification or scenario that you can imagine that would explain someone in handcuffs in police custody sustaining a spinal cord injury?

Last Answer : It sure doesn’t seem justified on the face of it.

Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury ? -Biology-10

Description : Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury ? -Biology-10

Last Answer : All the involuntary actions will get disturbed. (ii) Reflex actions will be disturbed because reflexes are located in the spinal cord. Therefore, the quick responses required to safe guard the body will not take place.

Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight. b) Simple Types of sleep apnea do not include a simple characterization. c) Mixed Mixed sleep apnea is a combination of central and obstructive apnea with one apneic episode. d) Central In central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Description : Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older ... central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Last Answer : a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight.

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

Description : The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a ... . d) local arterial insufficiency. Local arterial insufficiency is characterized by marked localized pallor.

Last Answer : a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

Description : When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. ... the result of increased interstitial fluid and associated with disorders such as congestive heart failure.

Last Answer : a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is an indicator of shock. c) Warm, dry skin Skin is generally cool and moist in shock. d) Increased urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Description : The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is ... urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Last Answer : a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. b) Stage III A stage III ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted. b) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted.

Ageism refers to a) Bias against older people based solely on chronological age Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration of functional capacity. b) fear of old age. Fear of aging and the inability of many to confront their own aging process may trigger ageist beliefs. c) loss of memory. Age-related loss of memory occurs more with short-term and recent memory. d) benign senescent forgetfulness. Benign senescent forgetfulness refers to the age-related loss of memory in the absence of a pathologic process.

Description : Ageism refers to a) Bias against older people based solely on chronological age Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration ... refers to the age-related loss of memory in the absence of a pathologic process.

Last Answer : a) Bias against older people based solely on chronological age Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration of functional capacity.

A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7 or less is generally interpreted as a) coma. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool for assessing a patient’s response to stimuli. A score of 7 or less is generally interpreted as coma.

Description : A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7 or less is generally interpreted as a) coma. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool for assessing a patient's response to stimuli. A score of 7 or ... 3 is interpreted as least responsive. d) most responsive. A GCS score of 15 is interpreted as most responsive.

Last Answer : a) coma. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool for assessing a patient’s response to stimuli. A score of 7 or less is generally interpreted as coma.

Prostaglandins are chemical substances thought to a) increase sensitivity of pain receptors. Prostaglandins are believed to increase sensitivity to pain receptors by enhancing the pain-provoking effect of bradykinin. b) reduce the perception of pain. Endorphins and enkephalins reduce or inhibit transmission or perception of pain. c) inhibit the transmission of pain. Endorphins and enkephalins reduce or inhibit transmission or perception of pain. d) inhibit the transmission of noxious stimuli. Morphine and other opioid medications inhibit the transmission of noxious stimuli by mimicking enkephalin and endorphin.

Description : Prostaglandins are chemical substances thought to a) increase sensitivity of pain receptors. Prostaglandins are believed to increase sensitivity to pain receptors by enhancing the pain-provoking ... opioid medications inhibit the transmission of noxious stimuli by mimicking enkephalin and endorphin.

Last Answer : a) increase sensitivity of pain receptors. Prostaglandins are believed to increase sensitivity to pain receptors by enhancing the pain-provoking effect of bradykinin.

Which of the following is NOT CHARACTERISTIC of trigeminal neuralgia?** A. The pain usually last for few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of the disease B. The pain is usually unilateral C. Patient characteristically have sites on the skin that when stimulated precipitate an attack of pain D. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead E. It is a paroxysmal in nature and may respond to the treatment with Carbamazepine

Description : Which of the following is NOT CHARACTERISTIC of trigeminal neuralgia?** A. The pain usually last for few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of the disease B. The pain is usually ... of the forehead E. It is a paroxysmal in nature and may respond to the treatment with Carbamazepine

Last Answer : D. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead

When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest. b) 30-35 seconds Applying suction for 30-35 seconds is hazardous and may result in the patient’s developing hypoxia, which can lead to dysrhythmias and, ultimately, cardiac arrest.

Description : When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general ... suction for 0-5 seconds would provide too little time for effective suctioning of secretions.

Last Answer : a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest.

When the patient tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200, and asks what that means, the nurse informs the patient that a person with 20/200 vision a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

Description : When the patient tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200, and asks what that means, the nurse informs the patient that a person with 20/200 vision a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person ... 20/20 line, the person of normal vision will be standing at a distance of 20 feet from the chart.

Last Answer : a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.

Description : An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease ... d) rectovaginal fistula. A rectovaginal fistula is an opening between the rectum and the vagina.

Last Answer : a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.

The nurse teaching the patient with a cast about home care includes which of the following instructions? a) Dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems. Instruct the patient to keep the cast dry and to dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems; do not cover it with plastic or rubber.

Description : The nurse teaching the patient with a cast about home care includes which of the following instructions? a) Dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin ... A broken cast should be reported to the physician; the patient should not attempt to fix it.

Last Answer : a) Dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems. Instruct the patient to keep the cast dry and to dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems; do not cover it with plastic or rubber.

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes. b) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. c) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger. d) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to ... the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Last Answer : a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes.

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

The nurse reading the physician’s report of an elderly patient’s physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

Description : The nurse reading the physician's report of an elderly patient's physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is ... red moles. Cherry angioma is the term that is used to describe a bright red mole.

Last Answer : a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of a) Paget’s disease. Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of nipple and areola. b) acute mastitis. Acute mastitis is demonstrated by nipple cracks or abrasions along with reddened and warm breast skin and tenderness.

Description : When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of a) Paget's disease. Paget's disease ... the breast and demonstrates an orange peel apearance of breast skin with enlargement of skin pores.

Last Answer : a) Paget’s disease. Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of nipple and areola.

For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless. b) Increased wakefulness As the body weakens, the patient will sleep more and begin to detach from the environment. c) Increased eating For many patients, refusal of food is an indication that they are ready to die. d) Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Description : For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the ... Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Last Answer : a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless.

When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms. b) acute. Acute PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms for less than a 3-month period. c) chronic. Chronic PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms lasting longer than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Description : When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there ... than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

Injury to the ______ nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop. a) Peroneal Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop.

Description : Injury to the ______ nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop. a) Peroneal Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop. b) Sciatic Injury to the ... footdrop. d) Achilles Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop.

Last Answer : a) Peroneal Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop.

Which of the following ranges identifies the amount of pressure within the endotracheal tube cuff that is believed to prevent both injury and aspiration? a) 20-25 mm Hg water pressure. Usually the pressure is maintained at less than 25 cm water pressure to prevent injury and at more than 20 cm water pressure to prevent aspiration. b) 10-15 mm Hg water pressure. A measure of 10–15 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is underinflated. c) 30-35 mm Hg water pressure. A measure of 30–35 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is overinflated. d) 0-5 mm Hg water pressure A measure of 0-5 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is underinflated.

Description : Which of the following ranges identifies the amount of pressure within the endotracheal tube cuff that is believed to prevent both injury and aspiration? a) 20-25 mm Hg water pressure. Usually the ... pressure A measure of 0-5 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is underinflated.

Last Answer : a) 20-25 mm Hg water pressure. Usually the pressure is maintained at less than 25 cm water pressure to prevent injury and at more than 20 cm water pressure to prevent aspiration.

Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

Description : Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) ... , 70 Pressure of 120 systolic and 70 diastolic falls within the normal range for an adult.

Last Answer : a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Which of the following methods to induce hemostasis after sheath removal post Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty is the least effective? a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several nursing interventions frequently used as part of the standard of care, such as applying a sandbag to the sheath insertion site, have not been shown to be effective in reducing the incidence of bleeding.

Description : Which of the following methods to induce hemostasis after sheath removal post Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty is the least effective? a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several ... ) Application of a pneumatic compression device post PTCA has been demonstrated to be effective

Last Answer : a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several nursing interventions frequently used as part of the standard of care, such as applying a sandbag to the sheath insertion site, have not been shown to be effective in reducing the incidence of bleeding.

Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

Description : Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer's solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and ... only to treat severe symptomatic hyponatremia and should be used only in intensive care units.

Last Answer : a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

Description : In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result ... a chair. The patient should be taught to avoid bending forward when seated in a chair.

Last Answer : a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Description : A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of ... and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) cultures. Blood and CSF cultures help diagnosis fungal encephalitis.

Last Answer : a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B ... 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.