Which of the following types of lung cancer is the most prevalent carcinoma of the lung for both men and women? a) Adenocarcinoma Adenocarcinoma presents more peripherally as peripheral masses or nodules and often metastasizes. b) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally. c) Squamous cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma is more centrally located and arises more commonly in the segmental and subsegmental bronchi in response to repetitive carcinogenic exposures. d) Small cell carcinoma Small cell carcinomas arise primarily as proximal lesions, but may arise in any part of the tracheobronchial tree.

Which of the following types of lung cancer is the most
prevalent carcinoma of the lung for both men and women?
a) Adenocarcinoma
Adenocarcinoma presents more peripherally as peripheral masses or
nodules and often metastasizes.
b) Large cell carcinoma
Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise
peripherally.
c) Squamous cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma is more centrally located and arises more
commonly in the segmental and subsegmental bronchi in response to
repetitive carcinogenic exposures.
d) Small cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinomas arise primarily as proximal lesions, but may
arise in any part of the tracheobronchial tree.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Adenocarcinoma
Adenocarcinoma presents more peripherally as peripheral masses or
nodules and often metastasizes.
by

Related questions

Which of the following types of lung cancer is characterized as fast growing and tending to arise peripherally? a) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally. b) Bronchioalveolar carcinoma Bronchioalveolar cell cancer arises from the terminal bronchus and alveoli and is usually slow-growing. c) Adenocarcinoma Adenocarcinoma presents as peripheral masses or nodules and often metastasizes. d) Squamous cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma arises from the bronchial epithelium and is more centrally located.

Description : Which of the following types of lung cancer is characterized as fast growing and tending to arise peripherally? a) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that ... cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma arises from the bronchial epithelium and is more centrally located.

Last Answer : a) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally.

A malignant tumor a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body. b) demonstrates cells that are well-differentiated. Cells of malignant tumors are undifferentiated. c) is usually slow growing. Malignant tumors demonstrate variable rate of growth; however, the more anaplastic the tumor, the faster its growth. d) grows by expansion. A malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.

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Last Answer : a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body.

Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco. b) It is three times more common in women in the U.S. than men. In the United States, carcinoma of the esophagus occurs more than three times as often in men as in women. c) It is seen more frequently in Caucasians than in African Americans. It is seen more frequently in African Americans than in Caucasians. d) It usually occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

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Last Answer : a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco.

When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, indicates squamous cell carcinoma. b) normal. A class 1 Pap smear is interpreted as normal. c) probably normal. A class 2 Pap smear is interpreted as probably normal. d) suspicious. A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.

Description : When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, ... is interpreted as probably normal. d) suspicious. A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.

Last Answer : a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, indicates squamous cell carcinoma.

both skin and lung cancer are classified as carcinomas -General Knowledge

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The cornea: a. is thicker centrally than peripherally b. contains 10,000 endothelium cells per square mm at birth c.has an acellular collagenous stroma d. contain Descemet's membrane is produced by the endothelium e. has a refractive index of 1.38

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A 17-year-old patient involved in an automobile accident is paralyzed with multiple peripheral extremity injuries. Nutritional support is instituted with a transnasal feeding catheter. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the patient’s management? a. Feeding into the stomach results in stimulation of the biliary/pancreatic axis which is probably trophic for small bowel b. Gastric secretions will dilute the feedings increasing the risk of diarrhea c. The major risk in this patient is tracheobronchial aspiration d. Placement of the feeding catheter through the pylorus into the first portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration

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Last Answer : pure sensory or pure motor nerve tends to regenerate better than mixed nerve

In injury of the peripheral nerve: a. pure sensory or pure motor nerve tends to regenerate better than mixed nerve b. in neuropraxia, there is anatomical disruption of the nerve c. Wallerian degeneration occurs 3 days after the injury d. Wallerian degeneration occurs proximal to the site of the injury

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Last Answer : pure sensory or pure motor nerve tends to regenerate better than mixed nerve

Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. Metastasis is the term that refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. d) the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow. Nadir is the term that refers to the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

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Last Answer : a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients.

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Of the following common problems of the upper extremities, which results from entrapment of the median nerve at the wrist? a) Carpal tunnel syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome is commonly due to repetitive hand activities.

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Lesions in the temporal lobe may result in which of the following types of agnosia? a) Auditory Lesions in the temporal lobe (lateral and superior portions) may result in auditory agnosia.

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Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b) tolerance to opioids is uncommon. Tolerance to opioids is common. c) addiction to opioids commonly develops. Addiction to opioids is rare. d) the nurse must be primarily concerned about development of addiction by the patient in pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

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Of the following disorders, which results from excessive secretion of somatotropin? a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

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Last Answer : a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

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A patient states that for ALMOST a year now she has had a rubbery, firm, painless nodule within the substance of parotid gland. This MOST likely is: A. Mucocele B. Lymph node C. Benign mixed tumour D. Squamous cell carcinoma E. Sialolith with encapsulations

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Which of the following is secondary to immune deficiency: A. Pseudo membrane deficiency B. Herpes simplex C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Elevated Epstein bar viruses incidence

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Characteristic of Squamous Cell Carcinoma:** A. White skinned people B. Alcoholic and smokers C. It reacts far simply to radiotherapy

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.What is the most common malignant lesion that occurs in the oral cavity: A. Ameloblastoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Osteosarcom

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The most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults is: a. Retinoblastoma b. Choroidal melanoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva d. Iris nevus

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Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the M phase of the cell cycle (b) Derived from the bark of yew trees (c) Myelosuppression is dose-limiting (d) Peripheral neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients (e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur

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According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma). b) primary. Primary hypertension has no known underlying cause. c) essential. Essential hypertension has no known underlying cause. d) isolated systolic. Isolated systolic hypertension is demonstrated by readings in which the systolic pressure exceeds 140 mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

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Last Answer : a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma).

Halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are signs and symptoms associated most directly with a) esophageal diverticula. Because the diverticula may retain decomposed food, halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are frequent complaints. b) achalasia. Achalasia presents as difficulty in swallowing both liquids and solids. c) gastroesophageal reflux. Gastroesophageal reflux presents as burning in the esophagus, indigestion, and difficulty in or pain upon swallowing. d) hiatal hernia. Hiatal hernia presents as heartburn, regurgitation, and dysphagia in many patients while at least 50% are asymptomatic.

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Last Answer : a) esophageal diverticula. Because the diverticula may retain decomposed food, halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are frequent complaints.

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Last Answer : a) no muscle atrophy. Upper motor neuron lesions do not cause muscle atrophy but do cause loss of voluntary control.

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Last Answer : a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD.

When the nurse assesses the patient and observes blue-red and dark brown plaques and nodules, she recognizes that these manifestations are associated with a) Kaposi’s sarcoma. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a frequent comorbidity of the patient with AIDS.

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Last Answer : a) Kaposi’s sarcoma. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a frequent comorbidity of the patient with AIDS.

When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient’s posturing as a) decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing.

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Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in humans? (a) Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation of bronchi. (b) Neural signals from pneumotoxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration. (c) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer from lung fibrosis. (d) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin.

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Last Answer : (c) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer from lung fibrosis.

Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in humans ? (1) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2 ) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin (2) Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation of bronchi (3) Neural signals from pneumotoxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration (4) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis.

Description : Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in humans ? (1) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2 ) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin (2) Cigarette smoking ... of inspiration (4) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis.

Last Answer : (4) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis.

In many types of cancer, proteins that are crucial regulators of the cell cycle are often mutated and cannot function correctly. This leads to the evasion of apoptosis and to the loss of control of cell proliferation? For example, many cancer cells carry two mutant copies of the gene that codes for a tumor suppressor protein named p53. What is the normal function of p53 that is lost when it is mutated?

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Which of the following terms refers most precisely to a localized skin infection of a single hair follicle? a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas subjected to irritation, pressure friction, and excessive perspiration, such as the back of the neck, the axillae, or the buttocks.

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Last Answer : a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas subjected to irritation, pressure friction, and excessive perspiration, such as the back of the neck, the axillae, or the buttocks.

Centchroman is: A. An oral contraceptive for women B. An oral contraceptive for men C. A mast cell stabilizer D. A centrally acting muscle relaxant

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Last Answer : A. An oral contraceptive for women

The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the patient is no longer contagious to others.

Description : The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the ... , and pustules appear. The child remains contagious when the rash is changing into vesicles and pustules.

Last Answer : a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the patient is no longer contagious to others.

Lower motor neuron lesions cause a) flaccid muscle paralysis. Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccid muscle paralysis, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control.

Description : Lower motor neuron lesions cause a) flaccid muscle paralysis. Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccid muscle paralysis, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control. ... d) hyperactive and abnormal reflexes. Upper motor neuron lesions cause hyperactive and abnormal reflexes.

Last Answer : a) flaccid muscle paralysis. Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccid muscle paralysis, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control.

Which type of biopsy is used for nonpalpable lesions found on mammography? a) Stereotactic Stereotactic biopsy utilizes computer location of the suspicious area found on biopsy, followed by core needle insertion and sampling of tissue for pathologic examination.

Description : Which type of biopsy is used for nonpalpable lesions found on mammography? a) Stereotactic Stereotactic biopsy utilizes computer location of the suspicious area found on biopsy, followed by core needle insertion ... core biopsy is used when a tumor is relatively large and close to the skin surface.

Last Answer : a) Stereotactic Stereotactic biopsy utilizes computer location of the suspicious area found on biopsy, followed by core needle insertion and sampling of tissue for pathologic examination.

The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities. b) slowed heart rate. Nicotine has stimulant effects. c) depression of the cough reflex. Nicotine does not suppress cough. Smoking irritates the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the ... the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Last Answer : a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities.

The MOST common sites for squamous carcinoma in the oral cavity are:** A. Palate and gingivae B. Tongue and floor of the mouth C. Tongue and palate

Description : The MOST common sites for squamous carcinoma in the oral cavity are:** A. Palate and gingivae B. Tongue and floor of the mouth C. Tongue and palate

Last Answer : B. Tongue and floor of the mouth

Which of the following diseases is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord? a) Multiple sclerosis The cause of MS is not known and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

Description : Which of the following diseases is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and ... the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

Last Answer : a) Multiple sclerosis The cause of MS is not known and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for stimulating the production of progesterone? a) Luteinizing hormone Luteinizing hormone is released by the pituitary gland. b) Follicle-stimulating hormone Follicle-stimulating hormone is responsible for stimulating the ovaries to secrete estrogen. c) Estrogen Estrogens are responsible for developing and maintaining the female reproductive tract. d) Androgen Androgens, secreted in small amounts by the ovaries, are involved in early development of the follicle and also affect the female libido.

Description : Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for stimulating the production of progesterone? a) Luteinizing hormone Luteinizing hormone is released by the pituitary gland. b) Follicle-stimulating ... , are involved in early development of the follicle and also affect the female libido.

Last Answer : a) Luteinizing hormone Luteinizing hormone is released by the pituitary gland.

Retinoblastoma is the most common eye tumor of childhood; it is hereditary in a) 30-40% of cases. Retinoblastoma can be hereditary or nonhereditary. It is hereditary in 30-40% of cases. All bilateral cases are hereditary.

Description : Retinoblastoma is the most common eye tumor of childhood; it is hereditary in a) 30-40% of cases. Retinoblastoma can be hereditary or nonhereditary. It is hereditary in 30-40% of cases. All bilateral cases are ... 30-40% of cases. d) 50-75% of cases. Retinoblastoma is hereditary in 30-40% of cases.

Last Answer : a) 30-40% of cases. Retinoblastoma can be hereditary or nonhereditary. It is hereditary in 30-40% of cases. All bilateral cases are hereditary.

Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) will help improve most skin conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

Description : Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and ... for the overall treatment of HIV disease; it is not specific for treatment of skin conditions.

Last Answer : a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active ... conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.