Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the M phase of the cell cycle (b) Derived from the bark of yew trees (c) Myelosuppression is dose-limiting (d) Peripheral neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients (e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur

Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the M phase of the cell cycle (b) Derived from the bark of yew trees (c) Myelosuppression is dose-limiting (d) Peripheral neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients (e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur
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Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b) Is active against strains of streptococci that are resistant to erythromycin (c) Is more active against Mycobacterium avium complex (d) Does not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci

Description : Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b ... not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci

Last Answer : Ans: C

This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment. The drug should not be used in penicillinallergic patients. Its activity against gramnegative rods is enhanced if it is given in combination with tazobactam (a) Amoxicillin (b) Aztreonam (c) Imipenem (d) Piperacillin (e) Vancomycin

Description : This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment. The drug should not be used in ... with tazobactam (a) Amoxicillin (b) Aztreonam (c) Imipenem (d) Piperacillin (e) Vancomycin

Last Answer : Ans: D

An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its (a) Rapid onset of action (b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells (c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity (d) Very broad spectrum of activity (e) Both (a) and (b)

Description : An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its (a) Rapid onset of action (b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells (c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity (d) Very broad spectrum of activity (e) Both (a) and (b)

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false? (a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam (b) It causes maculopapular rashes (c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection (d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA (e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use

Description : Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false? (a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam (b) It causes maculopapular rashes (c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection (d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA (e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate? (a) It is active against MRSA strains (b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia (c) It is a fourth-generation cephalosporin (d) It decreases prothrombin time (e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis

Description : Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate? (a) It is active against MRSA strains (b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia (c) ... fourth-generation cephalosporin (d) It decreases prothrombin time (e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis

Last Answer : Ans: E

Which of the following statements about vancomycin is accurate? (a) It is bacteriostatic (b) It binds to PBPs (c) It is not susceptible to penicillinase (d) It has the advantage of oral bioavailability (e) Staphylococcal enterocolitis occurs commonly with its use

Description : Which of the following statements about vancomycin is accurate? (a) It is bacteriostatic (b) It binds to PBPs (c) It is not susceptible to penicillinase (d) It has the advantage of oral bioavailability (e) Staphylococcal enterocolitis occurs commonly with its use

Last Answer : Ans: C

Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Tobramycin (d) Erythromycin

Description : Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Tobramycin (d) Erythromycin

Last Answer : Ans: C

In the empiric treatment of severe bacterial infections of unidentified entiology, this drug, often used in combination with an aminoglycoside, provides coverage against many staphylococci (a) Amoxicillin (b) Clavulanic acid (c) Erythromycin (d) Nafcillin (e) Tetracycline

Description : In the empiric treatment of severe bacterial infections of unidentified entiology, this drug, often used in combination with an aminoglycoside, provides coverage against many staphylococci (a) Amoxicillin (b) Clavulanic acid (c) Erythromycin (d) Nafcillin (e) Tetracycline

Last Answer : Ans: D

A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Spectinomycin (d) Doxycycline

Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Spectinomycin (d) Doxycycline

Last Answer : Ans: A

Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for (a) Agranulocytosis patients (b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects (c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever (d) Treatment of anthrax

Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for (a) Agranulocytosis patients (b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects (c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever (d) Treatment of anthrax

Last Answer : Ans: C

The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients (a) Clindamycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Roxithromycin (d) Erythromycin

Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients (a) Clindamycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Roxithromycin (d) Erythromycin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of developing deep venous thrombosis with low-dose heparin prophylaxis decreases by 67% b. The risk of pulmonary embolism is decreased by almost 50% c. There is no increase in mortality from other causes found in patients treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of ... treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c In a metaanalysis of 70 randomized trials in 16,000 patients comparing low-dose heparin prophylaxis with standard therapy, the odds of developing deep venous thrombosis ... Similarly, the effectiveness of prophylaxis was not influenced by either two or three times daily dosage

Which type of antimicrobial drug combination is most likely to exhibit antagonism ? (a) Bactericidal + Bactericidal (b) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism (c) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a marginally sensitive organism (d) Bacteriostatic + Bacteriostatic

Description : Which type of antimicrobial drug combination is most likely to exhibit antagonism ? (a) Bactericidal + Bactericidal (b) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism (c) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a marginally sensitive organism (d) Bacteriostatic + Bacteriostatic

Last Answer : Ans: B

All of the following statements regarding pentamidine isethionate are true except (a) it is indicated for treatment or prophylaxis of infection due to Pneumocystis carinii (b) it may be administered intramuscularly, intravenously or by inhalation (c) it has no clinically significant effect on serum glucose (d) it is effective in the treatment of leishmaniasis

Description : All of the following statements regarding pentamidine isethionate are true except (a) it is indicated for treatment or prophylaxis of infection due to Pneumocystis carinii (b) it may be ... clinically significant effect on serum glucose (d) it is effective in the treatment of leishmaniasis

Last Answer : Ans: C

Select the cell cycle nonspecific antineoplastic drug: A. Vincristine B. Bleomycin C. Methotrexate

Description : Select the cell cycle nonspecific antineoplastic drug: A. Vincristine B. Bleomycin C. Methotrexate

Last Answer : D. 5-Fluorouracil

Intensive insulin therapy: A. Prevents the aggressive development of atherosclerosis in diabetic patients. B. Is not associated with unawareness of hypoglycemia. C. Improves peripheral neuropathy. D. Improves established retinopathy and nephropathy. E. Is indicated in all patients with non–insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM).

Description : Intensive insulin therapy: A. Prevents the aggressive development of atherosclerosis in diabetic patients. B. Is not associated with unawareness of hypoglycemia. C. Improves peripheral neuropathy. D. ... . E. Is indicated in all patients with non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM).

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Intensive insulin therapy is indicated in patients with IDDM who can actively participate in their own management and the attainment of the goals set for ... or prevents progression of these complications; however, better glucose control may improve peripheral neuropathy

Patients taking chronic doses of nonselective nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should periodically be screened for which of the following toxicities? (a) Nephrotoxicity (b) Peripheral neuropathy (c) Cardiotoxicity (d) All of the above (e) None of the above

Description : Patients taking chronic doses of nonselective nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should periodically be screened for which of the following toxicities? (a) Nephrotoxicity (b) Peripheral neuropathy (c) Cardiotoxicity (d) All of the above (e) None of the above

Last Answer : Ans: A

Taxol is a drug currently being used to treat cancer, particularly resistant forms of breast cancer. A natural source of Taxol is: w) bark and leaves of the yew tree x) apricot pits y) periwinkle flowers z) ginkgo leaves

Description : Taxol is a drug currently being used to treat cancer, particularly resistant forms of breast cancer. A natural source of Taxol is: w) bark and leaves of the yew tree x) apricot pits y) periwinkle flowers z) ginkgo leaves 

Last Answer : ANSWER: W -- BARK AND LEAVES OF THE YEW TREE

Which of the following classes of antineoplastic agents is cell– cycle-specific? a) Antimetabolites (5-FU) Antimetabolites are cell–cycle-specific (S phase). b) Antitumor antibiotics (bleomycin) Antitumor antibiotics are cell-cycle nonspecific. c) Alkylating agents (cisplatin) Alkylating agents are cell-cycle nonspecific. d) Nitrosureas (carmustine) Nitrosureas are cell-cycle nonspecific.

Description : Which of the following classes of antineoplastic agents is cell- cycle-specific? a) Antimetabolites (5-FU) Antimetabolites are cell-cycle-specific (S phase). b) Antitumor antibiotics ( ... agents are cell-cycle nonspecific. d) Nitrosureas (carmustine) Nitrosureas are cell-cycle nonspecific.

Last Answer : a) Antimetabolites (5-FU) Antimetabolites are cell–cycle-specific (S phase).

The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur following limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is called (a) Time-dependent killing (b) The post antibiotic effect (c) Clinical synergy (d) Concentration – dependent killing (e) Sequential blockade

Description : The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur following limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is called (a) Time-dependent killing (b) The post antibiotic effect (c) Clinical synergy (d) Concentration – dependent killing (e) Sequential blockade

Last Answer : Ans: B

Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential

Description : Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if ... (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against multidrug – resistant strains of M tuberculosis, including those resistant to streptomycin? (a) Amikacin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Gentamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Spectinomycin

Description : Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against multidrug – resistant strains of M tuberculosis, including those resistant to streptomycin? (a) Amikacin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Gentamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Spectinomycin

Last Answer : Ans: A

Your 23-year-old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The past medical history includes anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin. Worried about compliance, you would like to treat this patient with a singly dose, so you chose (a) Cefixime (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Spectinomycin (e) Tetracycline

Description : Your 23-year-old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The past medical history includes anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin. Worried about compliance, you would like to treat this patient ... chose (a) Cefixime (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Spectinomycin (e) Tetracycline

Last Answer : Ans: D

The appearance of markedly vacuolated, nucleated red cells in the marrow, anemia, and reticulocytopenia are characteristic dose-dependent side effects of (a) Azithromycin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Clindamycin (d) Doxycycline (e) Linezolid

Description : The appearance of markedly vacuolated, nucleated red cells in the marrow, anemia, and reticulocytopenia are characteristic dose-dependent side effects of (a) Azithromycin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Clindamycin (d) Doxycycline (e) Linezolid

Last Answer : Ans: C

In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol (b) Penicillin G, chlormphenicol, tetracycline, vancomycin (c) Imipenem, tetracycline, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin

Description : In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol ... (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin

Last Answer : Ans: A

Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the following disease. (a) Granuloma linguinale (b) Chancroid (c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin

Description : Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the following disease. (a) Granuloma linguinale (b) Chancroid (c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease ? (a) Chlortetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Cephalexin (d) Ethambutol

Description : Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease ? (a) Chlortetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Cephalexin (d) Ethambutol

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following statements about septic shock are true? A. A circulating myocardial depressant factor may account for the cardiac dysfunction sometimes seen with shock due to sepsis or SIRS. B. A cardiac index (CI) of 6 liters per minute per square meter of body surface, a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 15 mm. Hg, and a systemic vascular resistance index (SVRI) of 800 dynes-sec/(cm 5-m 2) is a hemodynamic profile consistent with septic shock. C. An increase in SvO 2 in septic patients may be explained by the finding of anatomic arteriovenous shunts. D. Results of human trials employing antimediator therapy, such as antiendotoxin antibodies, IL-1 receptor antagonist, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antibodies, have confirmed animal studies that demonstrate a significant im

Description : Which of the following statements about septic shock are true? A. A circulating myocardial depressant factor may account for the cardiac dysfunction sometimes seen with shock due to sepsis or ... animal studies that demonstrate a significant improvement in survival with the use of such agents.

Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Shock due to sepsis or SIRS frequently manifests as a hyperdynamic cardiovascular response, consisting of an elevated CI and a decreased SVR or SVRI. Occasionally, ... been encouraging thus far in human clinical trials, despite the promising results from many animal studies

The drug of choice for scarlet fever is (a) Tetracycline (b) Sulfonamides (c) Penicillin (d) Chloromycetin (e) Novobiocin

Description : The drug of choice for scarlet fever is (a) Tetracycline (b) Sulfonamides (c) Penicillin (d) Chloromycetin (e) Novobiocin

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Erythromycin (d) Rifampin (e) Tetracycline

Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Erythromycin (d) Rifampin (e) Tetracycline

Last Answer : Ans: D

The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is (a) Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Formation of esterases that hydrolyze the lactone ring (c) Increased activity of efflux mechanisms (d) Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltranferases (e) Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane

Description : The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is (a) Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Formation of ... ) Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltranferases (e) Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane

Last Answer : Ans: A

Chloramphenicol is particularly effective in the treatment of (a) Diphtheria (b) Tuberculosis (c) Emphysema (d) Rickettsial diseases (e) Streptomyces pyogenes infections

Description : Chloramphenicol is particularly effective in the treatment of (a) Diphtheria (b) Tuberculosis (c) Emphysema (d) Rickettsial diseases (e) Streptomyces pyogenes infections

Last Answer : Ans: D

Beta – lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be effective against all strains of each of the above organisms? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin

Description : Beta - lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be ... ? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which one of the following antibiotics is likely to be most effective agent in the treatment of an infection due to enterococci if used in conjuction with penicillin G? (a) Amikacin (b) Gentamicin (c) Netilmicin (d) Streptomycin (e) Tobramycin

Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is likely to be most effective agent in the treatment of an infection due to enterococci if used in conjuction with penicillin G? (a) Amikacin (b) Gentamicin (c) Netilmicin (d) Streptomycin (e) Tobramycin

Last Answer : Ans: D

In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin

Description : In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin

Last Answer : Ans: D

Roxithromycin has the following advantages over erythromycin except (a) It is more effective in whooping cough (b) It causes less gastric irritation (c) It has longer plasma half-life (d) It is unlikely to precipitate theophylline toxicity

Description : Roxithromycin has the following advantages over erythromycin except (a) It is more effective in whooping cough (b) It causes less gastric irritation (c) It has longer plasma half-life (d) It is unlikely to precipitate theophylline toxicity

Last Answer : Ans: A

The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin

Description : The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin

Last Answer : Ans: B

An aminoglycoside antibiotic should not be used concurrently with the following drug (a) Ampicillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampin

Description : An aminoglycoside antibiotic should not be used concurrently with the following drug (a) Ampicillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low (b) It is inactivated by the gut microflora (c) It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well

Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic ... (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well

Last Answer : Ans: A

Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Cotrimoxaxole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Ampicillin

Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Cotrimoxaxole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Ampicillin

Last Answer : Ans: C

Widespread and prolonged used of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains because antibiotics (a) Induce mutation in the bacteria (b) Promote conjugation among bacteria (c) Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially (d) All of the above

Description : Widespread and prolonged used of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains because antibiotics (a) Induce mutation in the bacteria (b) Promote conjugation among bacteria (c) Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

The plasma half life of pencillin-G is longer in the new born because their (a) Plasma protein level is low (b) Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature (c) Glomerular filtration rate is low (d) Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Description : The plasma half life of pencillin-G is longer in the new born because their (a) Plasma protein level is low (b) Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature (c) Glomerular filtration rate is low (d) Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which one of the following statements about “one daily” dosing with aminoglycosides is false ? (a) It is convenient for outpatient therapy (b) Adjustment of dosage is less important in renal insufficiency (c) Less nursing time is required (d) It is often less toxic than conventional (multiple)dosing regimens (e) Under-dosing is less of a problem

Description : Which one of the following statements about one daily dosing with aminoglycosides is false ? (a) It is convenient for outpatient therapy (b) Adjustment of dosage is less important in renal ... often less toxic than conventional (multiple)dosing regimens (e) Under-dosing is less of a problem

Last Answer : Ans: B

Hepatitits with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of erythromycin (a) Erythromycin base (b) Erythromycin stearate (c) Erythromycin estolate (d) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

Description : Hepatitits with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of erythromycin (a) Erythromycin base (b) Erythromycin stearate (c) Erythromycin estolate (d) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

Last Answer : Ans: C

In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s) (a) It is effective in nearly all cases (b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms (c) Development of carrier state is less likely (d) All of the above

Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s) (a) It is effective in nearly all cases (b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms (c) Development of carrier state is less likely (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D