Halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are signs and symptoms associated most directly with a) esophageal diverticula. Because the diverticula may retain decomposed food, halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are frequent complaints. b) achalasia. Achalasia presents as difficulty in swallowing both liquids and solids. c) gastroesophageal reflux. Gastroesophageal reflux presents as burning in the esophagus, indigestion, and difficulty in or pain upon swallowing. d) hiatal hernia. Hiatal hernia presents as heartburn, regurgitation, and dysphagia in many patients while at least 50% are asymptomatic.

Halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are signs and symptoms
associated most directly with
a) esophageal diverticula.
Because the diverticula may retain decomposed food, halitosis and a
sour taste in the mouth are frequent complaints.
b) achalasia.
Achalasia presents as difficulty in swallowing both liquids and solids.
c) gastroesophageal reflux.
Gastroesophageal reflux presents as burning in the esophagus,
indigestion, and difficulty in or pain upon swallowing.
d) hiatal hernia.
Hiatal hernia presents as heartburn, regurgitation, and dysphagia in
many patients while at least 50% are asymptomatic.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) esophageal diverticula.
Because the diverticula may retain decomposed food, halitosis and a
sour taste in the mouth are frequent complaints.
by

Related questions

Which of the following terms refers to the symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which is characterized by a burning sensation in the esophagus? a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to a burning sensation in the esophagus and indicates GERD. b) Dyspepsia Indigestion is termed dyspepsia. c) Dysphagia Difficulty swallowing is termed dysphagia. d) Odynophagia Pain on swallowing is termed odynophagia.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which is characterized by a burning sensation in the esophagus? a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to ... Dysphagia Difficulty swallowing is termed dysphagia. d) Odynophagia Pain on swallowing is termed odynophagia.

Last Answer : a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to a burning sensation in the esophagus and indicates GERD.

The most common symptom of esophageal disease is a) dysphagia. This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain on swallowing. b) nausea. Nausea is the most common symptom of gastrointestinal problems in general. c) vomiting. Vomiting is a nonspecific symptom that may have a variety of causes. d) odynophagia. Odynophagia refers specifically to acute pain on swallowing.

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Last Answer : a) dysphagia. This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain on swallowing.

Barium swallow study of a patient suffering from dysphagia revealed Bird's beak appearance of esophagus. The most probable diagnosis is Options: 1) Reflux esophagitis Barrett's esophagus 3) Hiatus hernia 4) Achalasia cardia

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Last Answer : D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

Which of the following terms is used to describe hemorrhage from the nose? a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose. b) Xerostomia Xerostomia refers to dryness of the mouth. c) Rhinorrhea Rhinorrhea refers to drainage of a large amount of fluid from the nose. d) Dysphagia Dysphagia refers to difficulties in swallowing.

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Last Answer : a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose.

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Regarding oral cancer, the nurse provides health teaching to inform the patient that a) many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages. As the cancer progresses, the patient may complain of tenderness or difficulty in chewing, swallowing, or speaking.

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Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

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Is burning chest pain a symptom of hiatal hernia?

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Last Answer : You are correct, this symptom could be related to hiatal hernia. However, this symptom could also be associated with other disorders. In order to best be assured you should go to your health care provider in order to determine what the cause of your chest pain stems from.

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A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

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I have a recurrent pain in my esophagus/sternum area. Could this be acid indigestion and what foods are triggers?

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What are the major and minor symptoms of a hiatal hernia?

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What are common hiatal hernia symptoms among older adults?

Description : What are common hiatal hernia symptoms among older adults?

Last Answer : I found some sites that talk about this in great deal that you can have a look at. Here are some sites for you to look at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hiatus_hernia ,www.nhs.uk/conditions/Hernia-hiatus

When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

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An 11 year old girl presents with the following complaints (1) Difficulty in climbing upstairs and combing her hair (2) Maculopapular rash over MCP joints (3) Gower's sign Positive. The most appropriate investigation to be advised is Options: 1) ESR 2) Creatine Kinase 3) RA Factor 4) ANA antibodies test

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Last Answer : Correct Answer: 2) Creatine Kinase

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

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Consumption of alcoholic beverages in moderate amounts can be allowed for the following category of subjects: A. Epileptics B. Patients with history of myocardial infarction C. Gastroesophageal reflux patients D. Pregnant women

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Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco. b) It is three times more common in women in the U.S. than men. In the United States, carcinoma of the esophagus occurs more than three times as often in men as in women. c) It is seen more frequently in Caucasians than in African Americans. It is seen more frequently in African Americans than in Caucasians. d) It usually occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated ... occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Last Answer : a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco.

When the nurse observes that the patient always has difficulty breathing when lying flat, the nurse records that the patient is demonstrating a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea prefer not to lie flat and will need to maintain their beds in a semi- to high Fowler’s position

Description : When the nurse observes that the patient always has difficulty breathing when lying flat, the nurse records that the patient is demonstrating a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea prefer not ... Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea refers to orthopnea that occurs only at night.

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Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient’s fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed. b) Minimal urine output of 50 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output may be less than 50 mL/hr. c) Minimal urine output of 10 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output must exceed 10 mL/hr. d) Minimal intake of 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient's fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are ... 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Last Answer : a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed.

The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure. b) Increased appetite Loss of appetite should be reported immediately. c) Weight loss Weight gain should be reported immediately. d) Ability to sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Description : The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of ... sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Last Answer : a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure.

What percentage of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now estimated to have developed post-polio syndrome? a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s, many now elderly, are developing new symptoms of weakness, fatigue and musculoskeletal pain. It is estimated that between 60% and 80% of the 640,000 polio survivors are experiencing the phenomenon known as post-polio syndrome.

Description : What percentage of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now estimated to have developed post-polio syndrome? a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s ... 80% of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now experiencing post-polio syndrome.

Last Answer : a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s, many now elderly, are developing new symptoms of weakness, fatigue and musculoskeletal pain. It is estimated that between 60% and 80% of the 640,000 polio survivors are experiencing the phenomenon known as post-polio syndrome.

Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. Metastasis is the term that refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. d) the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow. Nadir is the term that refers to the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

Description : Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) ... the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

Last Answer : a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients.

Typical signs and symptoms of appendicitis include: a) Nausea Nausea is typically associated with appendicitis with or without vomiting.

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Last Answer : a) Nausea Nausea is typically associated with appendicitis with or without vomiting.

94. When Nurse Abe presents the patient’s chart as evidence of a case, this is called a/an

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Last Answer : C. Exhibit

Which of the following statements reflect current research regarding the utilization of non-pharmacological measures in the management of burn pain? a) Music therapy may provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. Researchers have found that music affects both the physiologic and psychological aspects of the pain experience. Music diverts the patient’s attention away from the painful stimulus. Music may also provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. It also allows for patient self-expression.

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Last Answer : a) Music therapy may provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. Researchers have found that music affects both the physiologic and psychological aspects of the pain experience ... orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. It also allows for patient self-expression.

When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest. b) 30-35 seconds Applying suction for 30-35 seconds is hazardous and may result in the patient’s developing hypoxia, which can lead to dysrhythmias and, ultimately, cardiac arrest.

Description : When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general ... suction for 0-5 seconds would provide too little time for effective suctioning of secretions.

Last Answer : a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest.

Which of the phases of a migraine headache usually lasts less than an hour? a) Aura The aura phase occurs in about 20% of patients who have migraines and may be characterized by focal neurological symptoms.

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Nursing management of the patient with acute symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo includes which of the following? a) Bed rest Bed rest is recommended for patients with acute symptoms. Canalith repositioning procedures (CRP) may be used to provide resolution of vertigo, and patients with acute vertigo may be medicated with meclizine for 1-2 weeks.

Description : Nursing management of the patient with acute symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo includes which of the following? a) Bed rest Bed rest is recommended for patients with acute symptoms. ... -Hallpike procedure. The Dix-Hallpike test is an assessment test used to evaluate for BPPV.

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More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates which stage of HIV infection? a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic.

Description : More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates which stage of HIV infection? a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic. b) ... CDC category C - AIDS Less than 200 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category C - AIDS.

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Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b) tolerance to opioids is uncommon. Tolerance to opioids is common. c) addiction to opioids commonly develops. Addiction to opioids is rare. d) the nurse must be primarily concerned about development of addiction by the patient in pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

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If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Decrease in absorption of which of the following vitamins in the geriatric patient results in pernicious anemia? a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for absorption. b) C Lack of vitamin C may cause development of signs and symptoms of scurvy. c) D Vitamin D deficiency results in an inability to absorb calcium. d) B6 Vitamin B6 affects neuromuscular function.

Description : Decrease in absorption of which of the following vitamins in the geriatric patient results in pernicious anemia? a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for ... results in an inability to absorb calcium. d) B6 Vitamin B6 affects neuromuscular function.

Last Answer : a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for absorption.

The most significant nursing problem related to continuous tube feedings is a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. b) interruption of GI integrity Tube feedings preserve GI integrity by intraluminal delivery of nutrients. c) disturbance in the sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism Tube feedings preserve the normal sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism. d) interruption in fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.

Description : The most significant nursing problem related to continuous tube feedings is a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of ... in fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.

Last Answer : a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the patient receiving continuous tube feedings.

When the nurse assesses the patient and observes blue-red and dark brown plaques and nodules, she recognizes that these manifestations are associated with a) Kaposi’s sarcoma. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a frequent comorbidity of the patient with AIDS.

Description : When the nurse assesses the patient and observes blue-red and dark brown plaques and nodules, she recognizes that these manifestations are associated with a) Kaposi's sarcoma. Kaposi's sarcoma is ... syphilis. A painless chancre or ulcerated lesion is a typical finding in the patient with syphilis.

Last Answer : a) Kaposi’s sarcoma. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a frequent comorbidity of the patient with AIDS.

The reason that case management has gained such prominence in health care can be traced to a) Decreased cost of care associated with inpatient stay. The reasons case management has gained such prominence can be traced to the decreased cost of care associated with decreased length of hospital stay, coupled with rapid and frequent inter-unit transfers from specialty to standard care units.

Description : The reason that case management has gained such prominence in health care can be traced to a) Decreased cost of care associated with inpatient stay. The reasons case management has gained ... in acute care hospitals undergo frequent inter-unit transfers from specialty to standard care units.

Last Answer : a) Decreased cost of care associated with inpatient stay. The reasons case management has gained such prominence can be traced to the decreased cost of care associated with decreased length of hospital stay, coupled with rapid and frequent inter-unit transfers from specialty to standard care units.

Has anyone here dealt with a hiatal hernia?

Description : Has anyone here dealt with a hiatal hernia?

Last Answer : My dad has had one since I can remember. He takes Prilosec for it. He also gets scoped every 5 or 10 years (I don't remember) to check for disease or cancer. He never had surgery for it. I don ... being overweight makes it worse, but I don't know if he say any difference when he was down 50 pounds.

For those of you with GERD or a hiatal hernia, what kinds of diet help?

Description : For those of you with GERD or a hiatal hernia, what kinds of diet help?

Last Answer : answer:Well not exactly the same, however, I have recently had the joy of a Gallbladder flare up and the diet is similar to these conditions as well. Low fat, sugar, not eating large meals, not eating in ... long as she keeps to a light diet she is fine but anything rich or spicy sets off an attack.

Has anyone had a hiatal hernia?

Description : Has anyone had a hiatal hernia?

Last Answer : Any nurses, Dr’s, or anyone with medical knowledge is appreciated

Hiatal hernia?

Description : Hiatal hernia?

Last Answer : DefinitionHiatal hernia is a condition in which a portion of the stomach protrudes upward into the chest, through an opening in the diaphragm. The diaphragm is the sheet of muscle that separates ... may cause reflux (backflow) of gastric acid from the stomach into the esophagus.SymptomsChest pain

What is hiatal hernia and their types?

Description : What is hiatal hernia and their types?

Last Answer : Answers is the place to go to get the answers you need and to ask the questions you want

Foods To Avoid For Hiatal Hernia?

Description : Foods To Avoid For Hiatal Hernia?

Last Answer : Answers is the place to go to get the answers you need and to ask the questions you want

What To Eat with Hiatal Hernia?

Description : What To Eat with Hiatal Hernia?

Last Answer : Answers is the place to go to get the answers you need and to ask the questions you want