Edema of the conjunctiva is termed a) chemosis. Chemosis is a common manifestation of pink-eye.

Edema of the conjunctiva is termed
a) chemosis.
Chemosis is a common manifestation of pink-eye.
b) papilledema.
Papilledema refers to swelling of the optic disk due to increased
intracranial pressure.
c) proptosis.
Proptosis is the downward displacement of the eyeball.
d) strabismus.
Strabismus is a condition in which there is a deviation from perfect
ocular alignment.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) chemosis.
Chemosis is a common manifestation of pink-eye.
by

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When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms. b) acute. Acute PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms for less than a 3-month period. c) chronic. Chronic PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms lasting longer than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Description : When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there ... than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

The nurse reading the physician’s report of an elderly patient’s physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

Description : The nurse reading the physician's report of an elderly patient's physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is ... red moles. Cherry angioma is the term that is used to describe a bright red mole.

Last Answer : a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

What part of the eye gets inflamed and becomes pink when dust gets into ? (1) Cornea (2) Choroid (3) Conjunctiva (4) Sclerotic

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Description : Which of the following terms refers to weakness of both legs and the lower part of the trunk? a) Paraparesis Paraparesis is a frequent manifestation of degenerative neurologic disorders. b) ... four extremities. d) Paraplegia Paraplegia refers to paralysis of both legs and the lower trunk.

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Last Answer : a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

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Last Answer : a) Papilledema Papilledema is edema of the optic nerve.

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Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

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When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

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Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.

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Last Answer : a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias.

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Which of the following terms refers to the symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which is characterized by a burning sensation in the esophagus? a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to a burning sensation in the esophagus and indicates GERD. b) Dyspepsia Indigestion is termed dyspepsia. c) Dysphagia Difficulty swallowing is termed dysphagia. d) Odynophagia Pain on swallowing is termed odynophagia.

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Irritation of the lips associated with scaling, crust formation, and fissures is termed a) leukoplakia. Leukoplakia is characterized by white patches, usually on the buccal mucosa.

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A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein. b) air plethysmography Air plethysmography quantifies venous reflux and calf muscle pump ejection.

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When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulations, the wound healing is termed a) second intention healing. When wounds dehisce, they will be allowed to heal by secondary intention. b) primary intention healing. Primary or first intention healing is the method of healing in which wound edges are surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored without granulating.

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Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the patient breathes in the anesthetic mixture and experiences warmth, dizziness, and a feeling of detachment. c) II Stage II is the excitement stage, which may be characterized by struggling, singing, laughing, or crying. d) IV Stage IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

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Last Answer : a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours.

During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize. b) Promotion During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods. c) Initiation During this first step, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

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Last Answer : a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize.

According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma). b) primary. Primary hypertension has no known underlying cause. c) essential. Essential hypertension has no known underlying cause. d) isolated systolic. Isolated systolic hypertension is demonstrated by readings in which the systolic pressure exceeds 140 mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

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Last Answer : a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement.

A steady state within the body is termed a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain the steady state or homeostasis. b) Constancy. Constancy refers to the balanced internal state of the human body maintained by physiologic and biochemical processes. c) Adaptation. Adaptation refers to a constant, ongoing process that requires change in structure, function, or behavior so that the person is better suited to the environment. d) Stress. Stress refers to a state produced by a change in the environment that is perceived as challenging, threatening, or damaging to the person’s dynamic balance or equilibrium.

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Last Answer : a) Business arrangement between hospitals and physicians. PPO’s usually contract to provide health care to subscribers, usually businesses, for a negotiated fee that often is discounted.

The most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults is: a. Retinoblastoma b. Choroidal melanoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva d. Iris nevus

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Do you have any secrets for getting eye drops in the eye?

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The cranial nerve that is responsible for muscles that move the eye and lid is the _____________________ nerve. a) oculomotor The oculomotor (III) cranial nerve is also responsible for pupillary constriction and lens accommodation.

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Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away? a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects. b) Presbycusis Presbycusis refers to age-related hearing loss. c) Cataract Cataract is the development of opacity of the lens of the eye. d) Glaucoma Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

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Last Answer : a) Native Americans Some Native Americans stare at the floor during conversations, conveying respect and indicating that the listener is paying close attention to the speaker.

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Of the following common problems of the upper extremities, which results from entrapment of the median nerve at the wrist? a) Carpal tunnel syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome is commonly due to repetitive hand activities.

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Description : Meniscectomy refers to the a) replacement of one of the articular surfaces of a joint. The most common site for meniscectomy is the knee. b) incision and diversion of the muscle fascia. Fasciotomy refers to the ... a joint. d) removal of a body part. Amputation refers to the removal of a body part.

Last Answer : a) replacement of one of the articular surfaces of a joint. The most common site for meniscectomy is the knee.

The most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States is a) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). Viral infection is the most common cause of encephalitis. HSV is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the U.S.

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Last Answer : a) glioma. Gliomas are the most common brain neoplasms, accounting for about 45% of all brain tumors.

Of the following terms, which describes a condition characterized by abnormal spongy bone formation around the stapes? a) Otosclerosis Otosclerosis is more common in females than males and is frequently hereditary.

Description : Of the following terms, which describes a condition characterized by abnormal spongy bone formation around the stapes? a) Otosclerosis Otosclerosis is more common in females than males and is ... perforation. d) Otitis externa Otitis externa refers to inflammation of the external auditory canal.

Last Answer : a) Otosclerosis Otosclerosis is more common in females than males and is frequently hereditary.

Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Description : Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more ... Decrease in normal skin flora Cutaneous signs of HIV disease appear as immune function deteriorates.

Last Answer : a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Which of the following skin conditions is caused by staphylococci, streptococci, or multiple bacteria? a) Impetigo Impetigo is seen at all ages, but is particularly common among children living under poor hygienic conditions.

Description : Which of the following skin conditions is caused by staphylococci, streptococci, or multiple bacteria? a) Impetigo Impetigo is seen at all ages, but is particularly common among children living under poor ... ivy is a contact dermatitis caused by the oleoresin given off by a particular form of ivy.

Last Answer : a) Impetigo Impetigo is seen at all ages, but is particularly common among children living under poor hygienic conditions.

Of the following types of cells, which are believed to play a significant role in cutaneous immune system reactions? a) Langerhans’ cells Langerhans’ cells are common to the epidermis and are accessory cells of the afferent immune system process.

Description : Of the following types of cells, which are believed to play a significant role in cutaneous immune system reactions? a) Langerhans' cells Langerhans' cells are common to the epidermis and are ... and skin. d) Phagocytes Phagocytes are white blood cells that engulf and destroy foreign materials.

Last Answer : a) Langerhans’ cells Langerhans’ cells are common to the epidermis and are accessory cells of the afferent immune system process.

Fibromyalgia is a common condition that a) involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching and stiffness. Fibromyalgia, is a common condition that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness.

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Last Answer : a) involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching and stiffness. Fibromyalgia, is a common condition that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness.

Osteoarthritis is known as a disease that a) is the most common and frequently disabling of joint disorders. The functional impact of osteoarthritis on quality of life, especially for elderly patients, is often ignored.

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Last Answer : a) is the most common and frequently disabling of joint disorders. The functional impact of osteoarthritis on quality of life, especially for elderly patients, is often ignored.

The nurse teaches the patient with allergies about anaphylaxis including which of the following statements? a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common cause of anaphylaxis, accounting for about 75% of fatal anaphylactic reactions in the U.S., is penicillin.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with allergies about anaphylaxis including which of the following statements? a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common ... 30 minutes of exposure involving cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and integumentary organ systems.

Last Answer : a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common cause of anaphylaxis, accounting for about 75% of fatal anaphylactic reactions in the U.S., is penicillin.

Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a) a hereditary predisposition. Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a hereditary predisposition and production of a local reaction to IgE antibodies produced in response to common environmental allergens.

Description : Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a) a hereditary predisposition. Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a hereditary predisposition and production of a local reaction to IgE ... of a local reaction to IgE antibodies produced in response to common environmental allergens.

Last Answer : a) a hereditary predisposition. Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a hereditary predisposition and production of a local reaction to IgE antibodies produced in response to common environmental allergens.