Bleeding between the dura mater and arachnoid membrane is termed a) subdural hematoma. A subdural hematoma is bleeding between the dura mater and arachnoid membrane.

Bleeding between the dura mater and arachnoid membrane is
termed
a) subdural hematoma.
A subdural hematoma is bleeding between the dura mater and
arachnoid membrane.
b) intracerebral hemorrhage.
Intracerebral hemorrhage is bleeding in the brain or the cerebral tissue
with displacement of surrounding structures.
c) epidural hematoma.
An epidural hematoma is bleeding between the inner skull and the
dura, compressing the brain underneath.
d) extradural hematoma.
An extradural hematoma is another name for an epidural hematoma.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) subdural hematoma.
A subdural hematoma is bleeding between the dura mater and
arachnoid membrane.
by

Related questions

Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and ... The pia mater is the innermost membrane of the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord.

Last Answer : a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Which of the following types of aneurysms results in bleeding into the layers of the arterial wall? a) Dissecting Dissection results from a rupture in the intimal layer, resulting in bleeding between the intimal and medial layers of the arterial wall. b) Saccular Saccular aneurysms collect blood in the weakened outpouching. c) False In a false aneurysm, the mass is actually a pulsating hematoma. d) Anastomotic An anastomotic aneurysm occurs as a result of infection at arterial suture or graft sites.

Description : Which of the following types of aneurysms results in bleeding into the layers of the arterial wall? a) Dissecting Dissection results from a rupture in the intimal layer, resulting in bleeding ... Anastomotic An anastomotic aneurysm occurs as a result of infection at arterial suture or graft sites.

Last Answer : a) Dissecting Dissection results from a rupture in the intimal layer, resulting in bleeding between the intimal and medial layers of the arterial wall.

Subdural hematoma?

Description : Subdural hematoma?

Last Answer : DefinitionA subdural hematoma is a collection of blood on the surface of the brain.Alternative NamesSubdural hemorrhageCauses, incidence, and risk factorsSubdural hematomas are usually the result of a serious head ... the brain and its outer covering (the dura) stretch and tear, allowing blood to

The following are true about cerebrospinal fluid: a. it is found in the space between the pia mater and the arachnoid b. the normal amount in human being is about 500 ml c. with the body lying in lateral horizontal position, the normal intracranial pressure is about 100 ml of water d. only the lateral ventricle contains choroidal plexus which secrete cerebrospinal fluid e. cerebrospinal fluid contains the same concentration of glucose as the blood

Description : The following are true about cerebrospinal fluid: a. it is found in the space between the pia mater and the arachnoid b. the normal amount in human being is about 500 ml c ... plexus which secrete cerebrospinal fluid e. cerebrospinal fluid contains the same concentration of glucose as the blood

Last Answer : it is found in the space between the pia mater and the arachnoid

A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken together with warfarin a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Description : A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken ... headaches. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Last Answer : a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Which of the following statements defines laparoscopic myomectomy—an alternative to hysterectomy for the treatment of excessive bleeding due to fibroids? a) Removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision. Laparoscopic myomectomy is the removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision.

Description : Which of the following statements defines laparoscopic myomectomy-an alternative to hysterectomy for the treatment of excessive bleeding due to fibroids? a) Removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted ... through a hyserscope passed through the cervix; no incision or overnight stay is needed.

Last Answer : a) Removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision. Laparoscopic myomectomy is the removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision.

Which of the following terms refers to tarry, black stools? a) Melena Melena indicates blood in the stool. b) Hemarthrosis Hemarthrosis is bleeding into a joint. c) Hematemesis Hematemesis is vomiting blood. d) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to heartburn.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to tarry, black stools? a) Melena Melena indicates blood in the stool. b) Hemarthrosis Hemarthrosis is bleeding into a joint. c) Hematemesis Hematemesis is vomiting blood. d) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to heartburn.

Last Answer : a) Melena Melena indicates blood in the stool.

Which of the following methods to induce hemostasis after sheath removal post Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty is the least effective? a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several nursing interventions frequently used as part of the standard of care, such as applying a sandbag to the sheath insertion site, have not been shown to be effective in reducing the incidence of bleeding.

Description : Which of the following methods to induce hemostasis after sheath removal post Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty is the least effective? a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several ... ) Application of a pneumatic compression device post PTCA has been demonstrated to be effective

Last Answer : a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several nursing interventions frequently used as part of the standard of care, such as applying a sandbag to the sheath insertion site, have not been shown to be effective in reducing the incidence of bleeding.

73. When the client returns to the unit after surgery, which technique is most appropriate to monitor bleeding from the incision?

Description : 73. When the client returns to the unit after surgery, which technique is most appropriate to monitor bleeding from the incision?

Last Answer : B. Assess for dampness at the back of the client’s neck

A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

Description : A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall. b) results in a pulling away of a ... to the skin or mucous membranes. A compound fracture involves damage to the skin or mucous membranes.

Last Answer : a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to surgery to repair and stabilize a fracture. c) heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification refers to formation of bone in the periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Description : Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to ... periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.

Paresthesia is the term used to refer to a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. b) absence of muscle movement suggesting nerve damage. The absence of muscle tone suggesting nerve damage is referred to as paralysis. c) involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. Involuntary twitch of muscle fibers is referred to as fasciculation. d) absence of muscle tone. A muscle which holds no tone is termed flaccid.

Description : Paresthesia is the term used to refer to a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. b) absence of muscle movement suggesting ... fasciculation. d) absence of muscle tone. A muscle which holds no tone is termed flaccid.

Last Answer : a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias.

Which of the following terms related to aphasia refers to difficulty in selecting appropriate words, particularly nouns? a) Anomia Anomia is also termed dysnomia.

Description : Which of the following terms related to aphasia refers to difficulty in selecting appropriate words, particularly nouns? a) Anomia Anomia is also termed dysnomia. b) Acalculia Acalculia refers to ... wrong words, word substitutions, and faults in word usage in both oral and written language.

Last Answer : a) Anomia Anomia is also termed dysnomia.

Edema of the conjunctiva is termed a) chemosis. Chemosis is a common manifestation of pink-eye.

Description : Edema of the conjunctiva is termed a) chemosis. Chemosis is a common manifestation of pink-eye. b) papilledema. Papilledema refers to swelling of the optic disk due to increased intracranial ... ) strabismus. Strabismus is a condition in which there is a deviation from perfect ocular alignment.

Last Answer : a) chemosis. Chemosis is a common manifestation of pink-eye.

The obstructive and irritative symptom complex caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy is termed a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, and a sensation that the bladder has not completely emptied.

Description : The obstructive and irritative symptom complex caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy is termed a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, ... . d) prostatectomy. Prostatectomy refers to the surgical removal of the prostate gland.

Last Answer : a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, and a sensation that the bladder has not completely emptied.

The opening into the vagina on the perineum is termed the a) introitus. The introitus is the vaginal orifice. b) adnexa. Adnexa is a term used to describe the fallopian tubes and ovaries together. c) cervix. The cervix is the bottom (interior) part of the uterus that is located in the vagina. hymen. d) The hymen is a tissue that may cover the vaginal opening partially or completely before vaginal penetration.

Description : The opening into the vagina on the perineum is termed the a) introitus. The introitus is the vaginal orifice. b) adnexa. Adnexa is a term used to describe the fallopian tubes and ovaries ... The hymen is a tissue that may cover the vaginal opening partially or completely before vaginal penetration.

Last Answer : a) introitus. The introitus is the vaginal orifice.

Rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after transplant is termed a) hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney.

Description : Rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after transplant is termed a) hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney. b) acute rejection. Acute ... term simple is not used in the categorization of types of rejection of kidney transplants.

Last Answer : a) hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney.

A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation). b) anorectal abscess. An anorectal abscess is an infection in the pararectal spaces. c) anal fistula. An anal fistula is a tiny, tubular, fibrous tract that extends into the anal canal from an opening located beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Description : A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent ... beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Last Answer : a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation).

Which of the following terms refers to the symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which is characterized by a burning sensation in the esophagus? a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to a burning sensation in the esophagus and indicates GERD. b) Dyspepsia Indigestion is termed dyspepsia. c) Dysphagia Difficulty swallowing is termed dysphagia. d) Odynophagia Pain on swallowing is termed odynophagia.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which is characterized by a burning sensation in the esophagus? a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to ... Dysphagia Difficulty swallowing is termed dysphagia. d) Odynophagia Pain on swallowing is termed odynophagia.

Last Answer : a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to a burning sensation in the esophagus and indicates GERD.

Irritation of the lips associated with scaling, crust formation, and fissures is termed a) leukoplakia. Leukoplakia is characterized by white patches, usually on the buccal mucosa.

Description : Irritation of the lips associated with scaling, crust formation, and fissures is termed a) leukoplakia. Leukoplakia is characterized by white patches, usually on the buccal mucosa. b) lichen ... a reddened circumscribed lesion that ulcerates and becomes crusted and is a primary lesion of syphilis.

Last Answer : a) leukoplakia. Leukoplakia is characterized by white patches, usually on the buccal mucosa.

A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein. b) air plethysmography Air plethysmography quantifies venous reflux and calf muscle pump ejection.

Description : A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x ... d) lymphoscintigraphy. In lymphoscintigraphy, a radioactive-labeled colloid is injected into the lymph system.

Last Answer : a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein.

Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT). b) occur during the QRS complex. PVCs are dangerous when they occur on the T wave. c) have the same shape. PVCs are dangerous when they are multifocal (have different shapes). d) are paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Description : Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they ... paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Last Answer : a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT).

When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulations, the wound healing is termed a) second intention healing. When wounds dehisce, they will be allowed to heal by secondary intention. b) primary intention healing. Primary or first intention healing is the method of healing in which wound edges are surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored without granulating.

Description : When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulations, the wound healing is termed a) ... of wound edges is delayed and integumentary continuity is restored by bringing apposing granulations together.

Last Answer : a) second intention healing. When wounds dehisce, they will be allowed to heal by secondary intention.

Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the patient breathes in the anesthetic mixture and experiences warmth, dizziness, and a feeling of detachment. c) II Stage II is the excitement stage, which may be characterized by struggling, singing, laughing, or crying. d) IV Stage IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Description : Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the ... IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Last Answer : a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours.

During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize. b) Promotion During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods. c) Initiation During this first step, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Description : During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and ... of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Last Answer : a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize.

According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma). b) primary. Primary hypertension has no known underlying cause. c) essential. Essential hypertension has no known underlying cause. d) isolated systolic. Isolated systolic hypertension is demonstrated by readings in which the systolic pressure exceeds 140 mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Description : According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of ... mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Last Answer : a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma).

When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms. b) acute. Acute PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms for less than a 3-month period. c) chronic. Chronic PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms lasting longer than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Description : When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there ... than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

An increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue that is reversible when the stimulus for production of new cells is removed is termed a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement. b) Hypertrophy. Hypertrophy is an increase in size and bulk of tissue that does not result from an increased number of cells. c) Atrophy. Atrophy refers to reduction in size of a structure after having come to full maturity. d) Neoplasia. With neoplasia, the increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue continues after the stimulus is removed.

Description : An increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue that is reversible when the stimulus for production of new cells is removed is termed a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply ... in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue continues after the stimulus is removed.

Last Answer : a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement.

A steady state within the body is termed a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain the steady state or homeostasis. b) Constancy. Constancy refers to the balanced internal state of the human body maintained by physiologic and biochemical processes. c) Adaptation. Adaptation refers to a constant, ongoing process that requires change in structure, function, or behavior so that the person is better suited to the environment. d) Stress. Stress refers to a state produced by a change in the environment that is perceived as challenging, threatening, or damaging to the person’s dynamic balance or equilibrium.

Description : A steady state within the body is termed a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain ... that is perceived as challenging, threatening, or damaging to the person's dynamic balance or equilibrium.

Last Answer : a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain the steady state or homeostasis.

A preferred provider organization is described as a a) Business arrangement between hospitals and physicians. PPO’s usually contract to provide health care to subscribers, usually businesses, for a negotiated fee that often is discounted. b) Prepaid group health practice system. A prepaid group health practice system is termed a health maintenance organization. c) Limited insurance program. Insurance is a cost payment system of shared risk, not a health care delivery system. d) Health care savings account program. A health care savings account program is an incentive program to consumers, not a health care delivery system.

Description : A preferred provider organization is described as a a) Business arrangement between hospitals and physicians. PPO's usually contract to provide health care to subscribers, usually businesses, for a ... savings account program is an incentive program to consumers, not a health care delivery system.

Last Answer : a) Business arrangement between hospitals and physicians. PPO’s usually contract to provide health care to subscribers, usually businesses, for a negotiated fee that often is discounted.

Which of the following terms refers to surgical repair of the tympanic membrane? a) Tympanoplasty Tympanoplasty may be necessary to repair a scarred eardrum.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to surgical repair of the tympanic membrane? a) Tympanoplasty Tympanoplasty may be necessary to repair a scarred eardrum. b) Tympanotomy A tympanotomy is ... Ossiculoplasty An ossiculoplasty is a surgical reconstruction of the middle ear bones to restore hearing.

Last Answer : a) Tympanoplasty Tympanoplasty may be necessary to repair a scarred eardrum.

Another term for clergyman’s sore throat is a) chronic granular pharyngitis. In clergyman’s sore throat, the pharynx is characterized by numerous swollen lymph follicles. b) aphonia. Aphonia refers to the inability to use one’s voice. c) atrophic pharyngitis. Atrophic pharyngitis is characterized by a membrane that is thin, white, glistening, and at times wrinkled. d) hypertrophic pharyngitis. Hypertrophic pharyngitis is characterized by general thickening and congestion of the pharyngeal mucous membrane.

Description : Another term for clergyman's sore throat is a) chronic granular pharyngitis. In clergyman's sore throat, the pharynx is characterized by numerous swollen lymph follicles. b) ... . Hypertrophic pharyngitis is characterized by general thickening and congestion of the pharyngeal mucous membrane.

Last Answer : a) chronic granular pharyngitis. In clergyman’s sore throat, the pharynx is characterized by numerous swollen lymph follicles.

Which of the following terms is used to describe hemorrhage from the nose? a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose. b) Xerostomia Xerostomia refers to dryness of the mouth. c) Rhinorrhea Rhinorrhea refers to drainage of a large amount of fluid from the nose. d) Dysphagia Dysphagia refers to difficulties in swallowing.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe hemorrhage from the nose? a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose. b ... of a large amount of fluid from the nose. d) Dysphagia Dysphagia refers to difficulties in swallowing.

Last Answer : a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose.

The following are true about the spinal cord: a. segment T12 lies at the level of vertebral body T9 b. cerebrospinal fluid is found within the subdural space c. two point discrimination is transmitted in the dorsal column d. hemisection results in contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense below the lesio

Description : The following are true about the spinal cord: a. segment T12 lies at the level of vertebral body T9 b. cerebrospinal fluid is found within the subdural space c. two point ... the dorsal column d. hemisection results in contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense below the lesio

Last Answer : segment T12 lies at the level of vertebral body T9

Three dimensional CAT Scans reveal the cyst called ______ within the skull. a) arachnoid cyst b) epidermoid cyst c) ganglion cyst d) chalazia cyst

Description : Three dimensional CAT Scans reveal the cyst called ______ within the skull. a) arachnoid cyst b) epidermoid cyst c) ganglion cyst d) chalazia cyst

Last Answer : a) arachnoid cyst

Septal hematoma?

Description : Septal hematoma?

Last Answer : DefinitionA septal hematoma is a bruise or bleeding within the nasal septum. The septum of the nose separates the two nostrils.Causes, incidence, and risk factorsA broken nose or any soft tissue injury to the ... touching with an applicator or Q-tip will show that the area is soft and can be presse

I'm found in the sea and on land but I can't walk or swim. I travel by foot but I'm toe less. No mater where I go I'm never far from home. What am I ? -Riddles

Description : I'm found in the sea and on land but I can't walk or swim. I travel by foot but I'm toe less. No mater where I go I'm never far from home. What am I ? -Riddles

Last Answer : A snail.

tell me about mater cool evaporator coolers

Description : tell me about mater cool evaporator coolers

Last Answer : Need Answer

What was the intended purpose of the frescoes from the house in Dura-Europos?

Description : What was the intended purpose of the frescoes from the house in Dura-Europos?

Last Answer : Feel Free to Answer

What is stabat mater?

Description : What is stabat mater?

Last Answer : Feel Free to Answer

What state of mater is sleet?

Description : What state of mater is sleet?

Last Answer : Solid.

What is the English meaning of alma mater?

Description : What is the English meaning of alma mater?

Last Answer : A college or seminary where one is educated.

The following are true about ocular circulation: a. only 4% of the total blood supply to the eye goes to the retina b. the choroidal blood flow in normal people is ten times that of the grey mater of the brain c. autoregulation occurs in both retinal and choroidal circulation d. a PaCO2 rise of 1 mm Hg induces a 3% rise in retinal blood flow

Description : The following are true about ocular circulation: a. only 4% of the total blood supply to the eye goes to the retina b. the choroidal blood flow in normal people is ten times that of the grey mater ... and choroidal circulation d. a PaCO2 rise of 1 mm Hg induces a 3% rise in retinal blood flow

Last Answer : a PaCO2 rise of 1 mm Hg induces a 3% rise in retinal blood flow

Among the postage stamp kept in the stock of mail offices for sale if any stamp cannot be disposed of within a reasonable time the mater should be reported to a) The record officer b) The local Postmaster c) The Sub divisional IRM d) The Supdt. Of RMS

Description : Among the postage stamp kept in the stock of mail offices for sale if any stamp cannot be disposed of within a reasonable time the mater should be reported to a) The record officer b) The local Postmaster c) The Sub divisional IRM d) The Supdt. Of RMS

Last Answer : d) The Supdt. Of RMS

Lamina dura is actually: A. Cortical bone B. Spongy bone C. Immature bone D. Cribriform plate perforated by nutrition canals

Description : Lamina dura is actually: A. Cortical bone B. Spongy bone C. Immature bone D. Cribriform plate perforated by nutrition canals

Last Answer : D. Cribriform plate perforated by nutrition canals

The lamina dura is absent in which condition: A. Von Recklinghausen B. Paget’s C. Periapical granuloma

Description : The lamina dura is absent in which condition: A. Von Recklinghausen B. Paget’s C. Periapical granuloma

Last Answer : B. Paget’s

Odontogenic cysts develop from the following structures except: A. Reduced enamel epithelium of tooth crown B. Dental lamina dura C. Epithelium trapped after sutures D. ertwig’s root sheath

Description : Odontogenic cysts develop from the following structures except: A. Reduced enamel epithelium of tooth crown B. Dental lamina dura C. Epithelium trapped after sutures D. ertwig’s root sheath

Last Answer : C. Epithelium trapped after sutures

Absence of clearly defined crystal lamina dura is because: A. Pathognomonic of periodontal disease B. Indicative of attachment loss C. Associated with periodontal pocket D. Commonly related to radiograph angulation

Description : Absence of clearly defined crystal lamina dura is because: A. Pathognomonic of periodontal disease B. Indicative of attachment loss C. Associated with periodontal pocket D. Commonly related to radiograph angulation

Last Answer : D. Commonly related to radiograph angulation