Of the following terms, which describes a condition characterized by abnormal spongy bone formation around the stapes? a) Otosclerosis Otosclerosis is more common in females than males and is frequently hereditary.

Of the following terms, which describes a condition
characterized by abnormal spongy bone formation around the
stapes?
a) Otosclerosis
Otosclerosis is more common in females than males and is frequently
hereditary.
b) Middle ear effusion
A middle ear effusion is denoted by fluid in the middle ear without
evidence of infection.
c) Chronic otitis media
Chronic otitis media is defined as repeated episodes of acute otitis
media causing irreversible tissue damage and persistent tympanic
membrane perforation.
d) Otitis externa
Otitis externa refers to inflammation of the external auditory canal.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Otosclerosis
Otosclerosis is more common in females than males and is frequently
hereditary.
by

Related questions

Which of the following terms refers to muscle tension being unchanged with muscle shortening and joint motion? a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic. b) Isometric contraction Isometric contraction is characterized by increased muscle tension, unchanged muscle length, and no joint motion. c) Contracture Contracture refers to abnormal shortening of muscle, joint, or both. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to muscle tension being unchanged with muscle shortening and joint motion? a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic. b) ... , joint, or both. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

Last Answer : a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic.

Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a) a hereditary predisposition. Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a hereditary predisposition and production of a local reaction to IgE antibodies produced in response to common environmental allergens.

Description : Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a) a hereditary predisposition. Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a hereditary predisposition and production of a local reaction to IgE ... of a local reaction to IgE antibodies produced in response to common environmental allergens.

Last Answer : a) a hereditary predisposition. Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a hereditary predisposition and production of a local reaction to IgE antibodies produced in response to common environmental allergens.

Which of the following terms refers to a condition characterized by destruction of the melanocytes in circumscribed areas of the skin? a) Vitiligo Vitiligo results in the development of white patches that may be localized or widespread.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a condition characterized by destruction of the melanocytes in circumscribed areas of the skin? a) Vitiligo Vitiligo results in the development of white patches ... refers to red marks on the skin caused by stretching of the superficial blood vessels.

Last Answer : a) Vitiligo Vitiligo results in the development of white patches that may be localized or widespread.

Emphysema is described as: a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD. b) A disease that results in a common clinical outcome of reversible airflow obstruction. Asthma is the disease described. c) The presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of two or three months in each of two consecutive years. Bronchitis is the disease described. d) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi Bronchiectasis is the condition described.

Description : Emphysema is described as: a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD. b) A disease that results in ... disease described. d) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi Bronchiectasis is the condition described.

Last Answer : a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD.

Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco. b) It is three times more common in women in the U.S. than men. In the United States, carcinoma of the esophagus occurs more than three times as often in men as in women. c) It is seen more frequently in Caucasians than in African Americans. It is seen more frequently in African Americans than in Caucasians. d) It usually occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated ... occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Last Answer : a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco.

A metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone is a) osteomalacia Osteomalacia is a metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone.

Description : A metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone is a) osteomalacia Osteomalacia is a metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone. b) osteoporosis ... of the joint disorders. OA affects the articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium.

Last Answer : a) osteomalacia Osteomalacia is a metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone.

Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia Anemia refers to decreased red cell mass. c) Leukopenia Leukopenia refers to a less-than-normal amount of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia ... of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Last Answer : a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called ... of tissue by freezing. c) Perineorrhaphy Perineorrhaphy refers to sutural repair of perineal lacerations.

Last Answer : a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. b) atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis is an abnormal accumulation of lipid deposits and fibrous tissue within arterial walls and lumens. c) atheroma Atheromas are fibrous caps composed of smooth muscle cells that form over lipid deposits within arterial vessels. d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. ... d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Last Answer : a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia.

Retinoblastoma is the most common eye tumor of childhood; it is hereditary in a) 30-40% of cases. Retinoblastoma can be hereditary or nonhereditary. It is hereditary in 30-40% of cases. All bilateral cases are hereditary.

Description : Retinoblastoma is the most common eye tumor of childhood; it is hereditary in a) 30-40% of cases. Retinoblastoma can be hereditary or nonhereditary. It is hereditary in 30-40% of cases. All bilateral cases are ... 30-40% of cases. d) 50-75% of cases. Retinoblastoma is hereditary in 30-40% of cases.

Last Answer : a) 30-40% of cases. Retinoblastoma can be hereditary or nonhereditary. It is hereditary in 30-40% of cases. All bilateral cases are hereditary.

Irritation of the lips associated with scaling, crust formation, and fissures is termed a) leukoplakia. Leukoplakia is characterized by white patches, usually on the buccal mucosa.

Description : Irritation of the lips associated with scaling, crust formation, and fissures is termed a) leukoplakia. Leukoplakia is characterized by white patches, usually on the buccal mucosa. b) lichen ... a reddened circumscribed lesion that ulcerates and becomes crusted and is a primary lesion of syphilis.

Last Answer : a) leukoplakia. Leukoplakia is characterized by white patches, usually on the buccal mucosa.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia. b) Sinus tachycardia Sinus tachycardia occurs when the sinus node regularly creates an impulse at a faster-than-normal rate. c) Atrial flutter Atrial flutter occurs in the atrium and creates an atrial rate between 250-400 times per minute. d) Atrial fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT ... fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

Last Answer : a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia.

Which of the following terms refers to the symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which is characterized by a burning sensation in the esophagus? a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to a burning sensation in the esophagus and indicates GERD. b) Dyspepsia Indigestion is termed dyspepsia. c) Dysphagia Difficulty swallowing is termed dysphagia. d) Odynophagia Pain on swallowing is termed odynophagia.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which is characterized by a burning sensation in the esophagus? a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to ... Dysphagia Difficulty swallowing is termed dysphagia. d) Odynophagia Pain on swallowing is termed odynophagia.

Last Answer : a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to a burning sensation in the esophagus and indicates GERD.

Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away? a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects. b) Presbycusis Presbycusis refers to age-related hearing loss. c) Cataract Cataract is the development of opacity of the lens of the eye. d) Glaucoma Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away? a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in ... lens of the eye. d) Glaucoma Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

Last Answer : a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects.

Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress, impaired functioning, or accentuated risk of enduring severe suffering or possible death? a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994. b) Emotional disorder There is no universally accepted definition of what constitutes an emotional disorder. c) Anxiety Anxiety is defined as fear of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Description : Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress ... of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Last Answer : a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994.

Which of the following terms describes a gastric secretion that combines with vitamin B-12 so that it can be absorbed? a) Intrinsic factor Lack of intrinsic factor is a common finding in the aged patient. b) Amylase Amylase is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of starch. c) Pepsin Pepsin is a gastric enzyme important in protein digestion. d) Trypsin Trypsin is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of protein.

Description : Which of the following terms describes a gastric secretion that combines with vitamin B-12 so that it can be absorbed? a) Intrinsic factor Lack of intrinsic factor is a common finding in the aged ... in protein digestion. d) Trypsin Trypsin is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of protein.

Last Answer : a) Intrinsic factor Lack of intrinsic factor is a common finding in the aged patient.

Which of the following procedures most specifically describes splitting or separating fused cardiac valve leaflets? a) Commisurotomy Commisurotomy is frequently used for mitral stenosis. b) Annuloplasty Annuloplasty refers to repair of a cardiac valve’s outer ring. c) Chordoplasty Chordoplasty refers to repair of the chordae tendonae of atroventricular valve leaflets. d) Valvuloplasty Valvuloplasty is a general term that refers to repair of a stenosed or regurgitant cardiac valve by commisurotomy, annuloplasty, leaflet repair, and/or chordoplasty.

Description : Which of the following procedures most specifically describes splitting or separating fused cardiac valve leaflets? a) Commisurotomy Commisurotomy is frequently used for mitral stenosis. b) ... or regurgitant cardiac valve by commisurotomy, annuloplasty, leaflet repair, and/or chordoplasty.

Last Answer : a) Commisurotomy Commisurotomy is frequently used for mitral stenosis.

Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to surgery to repair and stabilize a fracture. c) heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification refers to formation of bone in the periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Description : Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to ... periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of ... occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site b) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair during which the new bone is reorganized into the bone’s former structural arrangement. c) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion ... the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Last Answer : a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site

Degenerative neurologic disorders include which of the following? a) Huntington’s disease Huntington’s disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

Description : Degenerative neurologic disorders include which of the following? a) Huntington's disease Huntington's disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in ... the bone. d) Glioma Malignant glioma is the most common type of brain tumor.

Last Answer : a) Huntington’s disease Huntington’s disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

Which of the following diseases is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia? a) Huntington’s disease Because it is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, each child of a parent with HD has a 50% risk of inheriting the illness.

Description : Which of the following diseases is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia? a) Huntington's ... the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

Last Answer : a) Huntington’s disease Because it is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, each child of a parent with HD has a 50% risk of inheriting the illness.

Which of the following terms refers to a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent? a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent? a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone ... tendon and its attachment. d) Oblique An oblique is a fracture occurring at an angle across the bone.

Last Answer : a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent.

Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the ... growth of the fragments of a fractured bone in a faulty position, forming an imperfect union.

Last Answer : a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

Which of the following terms refers to a grating or crackling sound or sensation? a) Crepitus Crepitus may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a grating or crackling sound or sensation? a) Crepitus Crepitus may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface. b) ... to rhythmic contraction of muscle. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

Last Answer : a) Crepitus Crepitus may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface.

Which of the following terms refers to the shaft of the long bone? a) Diaphysis The diaphysis is primarily cortical bone. b) Epiphysis An epiphysis is an end of a long bone. c) Lordosis Lordosis refers to an increase in lumbar curvature of spine. d) Scoliosis Scoliosis refers to lateral curving of the spine.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the shaft of the long bone? a) Diaphysis The diaphysis is primarily cortical bone. b) Epiphysis An epiphysis is an end of a long bone. c) Lordosis ... an increase in lumbar curvature of spine. d) Scoliosis Scoliosis refers to lateral curving of the spine.

Last Answer : a) Diaphysis The diaphysis is primarily cortical bone.

Which of the following terms refers to mature compact bone structures that form concentric rings of bone matrix? a) Lamellae Lamellae are mineralized bone matrix.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to mature compact bone structures that form concentric rings of bone matrix? a) Lamellae Lamellae are mineralized bone matrix. b) Endosteum Endosteum refers to ... bone structure. d) Cancellous bone Cancellous bone refers to spongy, lattice-like bone structure.

Last Answer : a) Lamellae Lamellae are mineralized bone matrix.

When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient’s arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. b) must be equal in both arms. The pressures in each arm do not have to be equal in order to be considered normal. c) may vary 10 mm Hg or more between arms. Pressures that vary more than 10 mm Hg between arms indicate an abnormal finding. d) may vary, with the higher pressure found in the left arm. The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Description : When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient's arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in ... . The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Last Answer : a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures.

A specific BRCA1 cancer-predisposing gene mutation seems to occur more frequently among women of which descent? a) Ashkanazi Jewish Expression of the BRCA1 gene is an example of inheritance in the development of breast cancer. b) Mediterranean Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) is a common enzyme abnormality that affects millions of people throughout the world, especially those of Mediterranean, South East Asian, African, Middle Eastern, and Near Eastern origin.

Description : A specific BRCA1 cancer-predisposing gene mutation seems to occur more frequently among women of which descent? a) Ashkanazi Jewish Expression of the BRCA1 gene is an example of ... of treatment for tuberculosis) are at significantly increased risk for developing isoniazid-induced hepatitis.

Last Answer : a) Ashkanazi Jewish Expression of the BRCA1 gene is an example of inheritance in the development of breast cancer.

Which of the following is false in regard to Cleft. Palate? a. May be submucous. b. More common in males than females c. Predispose to speech defects, orthodontics problem and hearing loss. d. Patients are more likely to have cardiovascular defect than the general population.

Description : Which of the following is false in regard to Cleft. Palate? a. May be submucous. b. More common in males than females c. Predispose to speech defects, orthodontics problem and hearing loss. d. Patients are more likely to have cardiovascular defect than the general population.

Last Answer : b. More common in males than females

Which of the following is false in regard to Cleft-Palate? A. May be submucous B. More common in males than females C. Predispose to speech defects, orthodontics problem and hearing loss D. Patients are more likely to have cardiovascular defect than the general

Description : Which of the following is false in regard to Cleft-Palate? A. May be submucous B. More common in males than females C. Predispose to speech defects, orthodontics problem and hearing loss D. Patients are more likely to have cardiovascular defect than the general

Last Answer : B. More common in males than females

Which is the longest bone in the human body? (1) Fibula (2) Radius (3) Stapes (4) Femur

Description : Which is the longest bone in the human body? (1) Fibula (2) Radius (3) Stapes (4) Femur

Last Answer : (4) Femur Explanation: The head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum in the pelvic bone forming the hip joint, while the distal part of the femur articulates with the tibia and kneecap forming the knee joint.

The Shortest (smallest) bone in human body is------? A. Stapes (Answer) B. Tibia C. Femur D. Humerus

Description : The Shortest (smallest) bone in human body is------? A. Stapes (Answer) B. Tibia C. Femur D. Humerus

Last Answer : A. Stapes (Answer)

Osteoarthritis is known as a disease that a) is the most common and frequently disabling of joint disorders. The functional impact of osteoarthritis on quality of life, especially for elderly patients, is often ignored.

Description : Osteoarthritis is known as a disease that a) is the most common and frequently disabling of joint disorders. The functional impact of osteoarthritis on quality of life, especially for elderly patients, ... causes the described problem and is usually diagnosed in the second or third decade of life.

Last Answer : a) is the most common and frequently disabling of joint disorders. The functional impact of osteoarthritis on quality of life, especially for elderly patients, is often ignored.

Interspecific hybridisation is the mating of (a) animals within same breed without having common ancestors (b) two different related species (c) superior males and females of different breeds (d) more closely related individuals within same breed for 4-6 generations.

Description : Interspecific hybridisation is the mating of (a) animals within same breed without having common ancestors (b) two different related species (c) superior males and females of different breeds (d) more closely related individuals within same breed for 4-6 generations.

Last Answer : (b) two different related species

Which of the following terms describes the passage of a hollow instrument into a cavity for the withdrawal of fluid? a) Paracentesis Paracentesis may be used to withdraw ascitic fluid if the fluid accumulation is causing cardiorespiratory compromise.

Description : Which of the following terms describes the passage of a hollow instrument into a cavity for the withdrawal of fluid? a) Paracentesis Paracentesis may be used to withdraw ascitic fluid if the ... . d) Dialysis Dialysis refers to a form of filtration to separate crystalloid from colloid substances.

Last Answer : a) Paracentesis Paracentesis may be used to withdraw ascitic fluid if the fluid accumulation is causing cardiorespiratory compromise.

Which of the following terms best describes a living will? a) Medical directive The living will is a type of advance medical directive in which the individual of sound mind documents treatment preferences. b) Proxy directive A proxy directive is the appointment and authorization of another individual to make medical decisions on behalf of the person who created an advance directive when he/she is no loner able to speak for him/herself.

Description : Which of the following terms best describes a living will? a) Medical directive The living will is a type of advance medical directive in which the individual of sound mind documents treatment preferences. b) ... to make health care decisions on his/her behalf when he/she is unable to do so.

Last Answer : a) Medical directive The living will is a type of advance medical directive in which the individual of sound mind documents treatment preferences.

Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis Lymphangitis is an acute inflammation of the lymphatic channels. c) Lymphedema Lymphedema is demonstrated by swelling of tissues in the extremities because of an increased quantity of lymph that results from an obstruction of lymphatic vessels. d) Elephantiasis Elephantiasis refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis ... refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Last Answer : a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes.

Paresthesia is the term used to refer to a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. b) absence of muscle movement suggesting nerve damage. The absence of muscle tone suggesting nerve damage is referred to as paralysis. c) involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. Involuntary twitch of muscle fibers is referred to as fasciculation. d) absence of muscle tone. A muscle which holds no tone is termed flaccid.

Description : Paresthesia is the term used to refer to a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. b) absence of muscle movement suggesting ... fasciculation. d) absence of muscle tone. A muscle which holds no tone is termed flaccid.

Last Answer : a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias.

During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize. b) Promotion During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods. c) Initiation During this first step, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Description : During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and ... of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Last Answer : a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize.

Which of the following terms is used to describe stone formation in a salivary gland, usually the submandibular gland? a) Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate. b) Parotitis Parotitis refers to inflammation of the parotid gland. c) Sialadenitis Sialadenitis refers to inflammation of the salivary glands. d) Stomatitis Stomatitis refers to inflammation of the oral mucosa.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe stone formation in a salivary gland, usually the submandibular gland? a) Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate. b ... of the salivary glands. d) Stomatitis Stomatitis refers to inflammation of the oral mucosa.

Last Answer : a) Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate.

Which of the phases of a migraine headache usually lasts less than an hour? a) Aura The aura phase occurs in about 20% of patients who have migraines and may be characterized by focal neurological symptoms.

Description : Which of the phases of a migraine headache usually lasts less than an hour? a) Aura The aura phase occurs in about 20% of patients who have migraines and may be characterized by focal neurological ... to 72 hours. d) Recovery During the post-headache phase, patients may sleep for extended periods.

Last Answer : a) Aura The aura phase occurs in about 20% of patients who have migraines and may be characterized by focal neurological symptoms.

Which of the following types of lung cancer is characterized as fast growing and tending to arise peripherally? a) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally. b) Bronchioalveolar carcinoma Bronchioalveolar cell cancer arises from the terminal bronchus and alveoli and is usually slow-growing. c) Adenocarcinoma Adenocarcinoma presents as peripheral masses or nodules and often metastasizes. d) Squamous cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma arises from the bronchial epithelium and is more centrally located.

Description : Which of the following types of lung cancer is characterized as fast growing and tending to arise peripherally? a) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that ... cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma arises from the bronchial epithelium and is more centrally located.

Last Answer : a) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally.

Which of the following phases of psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks? a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, hyperalertness, and psychosomatic reactions, in addition to fear and flashbacks.

Description : Which of the following phases of psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks? a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, ... the incident is put into perspective. Some patients never fully recover from rape trauma.

Last Answer : a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, hyperalertness, and psychosomatic reactions, in addition to fear and flashbacks.

Korsakoff’s syndrome is characterized by a) psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations. Korsakoff’s syndrome is a personality disorder characterized by psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations.

Description : Korsakoff's syndrome is characterized by a) psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations. Korsakoff's syndrome is a personality disorder characterized by psychosis, ... Huntington's disease results in progressive involuntary choreiform (dancelike) movement and dementia.

Last Answer : a) psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations. Korsakoff’s syndrome is a personality disorder characterized by psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations.

Bell’s palsy is a disorder of which cranial nerve? a) Facial (VII) Bell’s palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis

Description : Bell's palsy is a disorder of which cranial nerve? a) Facial (VII) Bell's palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis b) Trigeminal (V) Trigeminal neuralgia is a disorder ... the vestibulocochlear nerve. d) Vagus (X) Guillain-Barre syndrome is a disorder of the vagus nerve.

Last Answer : a) Facial (VII) Bell’s palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis