Ossiculoplasty is defined as
a) surgical reconstruction of the middle ear bones.
Ossiculoplasty is performed to restore hearing.
b) surgical repair of the eardrum.
Surgical repair of the eardrum is termed tympanoplasty.
c) incision into the tympanic membrane.
Tympanotomy or myringotomy is the term used to refer to incision
into the tympanic membrane.
d) incision into the eardrum.
Tympanotomy or myringotomy is the term used to refer to incision
into the tympanic membrane.

1 Answer

Answer :

a) surgical reconstruction of the middle ear bones.
Ossiculoplasty is performed to restore hearing.

Related questions

Description : Of the following terms, which refers to the progressive hearing loss associated with aging? a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss. b) Exostoses Exostoses refers ... loss of hearing related to damage of the end organ for hearing and/or cranial nerve VIII.

Last Answer : a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss.

Description : The cranial nerve that is responsible for salivation, tearing, taste, and sensation in the ear is the _____________________ nerve. a) vestibulocochlear The vestibulocochlear (VII) cranial nerve is ... mastication. d) facial The facial (VII) nerve controls facial expression and muscle movement.

Last Answer : a) vestibulocochlear The vestibulocochlear (VII) cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and equilibrium.

Description : Which of the following conditions of the inner ear is associated with normal hearing? a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by ... Endolymphatic hydrops refers to dilation in the endolymmphatic space associated with Meniere's disease.

Last Answer : a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by severe vertigo with normal hearing.

Description : Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to ... periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome? a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, ... and cold are most appropriate because these patients tend to have strong reactions to medications.

Last Answer : a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for ... loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to surgical repair of the tympanic membrane? a) Tympanoplasty Tympanoplasty may be necessary to repair a scarred eardrum. b) Tympanotomy A tympanotomy is ... Ossiculoplasty An ossiculoplasty is a surgical reconstruction of the middle ear bones to restore hearing.

Last Answer : a) Tympanoplasty Tympanoplasty may be necessary to repair a scarred eardrum.

Description : The term or disease associated with buildup of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus cavernosum causing curvature of the penis when it is erect is known as a) Peyronie's disease. ... refers to an uncontrolled, persistent erection of the penis occurring from either neural or vascular causes.

Last Answer : a) Peyronie’s disease. Peyronie’s disease may require surgical removal of the plaques when the disease makes sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to surgical removal of one of the testes? a) Orchiectomy Orchiectomy is required when the testicle has been damaged. b) Circumcision Circumcision is excision ... describes the surgical repair of a hydrocele, a collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis.

Last Answer : a) Orchiectomy Orchiectomy is required when the testicle has been damaged.

Description : Of the following bariatric surgical procedures, which is the best procedure for long-term weight loss? a) Roux-en-Y The Roux-en-Y gastric bypass is the recommended procedure ... This procedure, which resulted in significant complications, has been largely replaced by gastric restriction procedures

Last Answer : a) Roux-en-Y The Roux-en-Y gastric bypass is the recommended procedure for longterm weight loss. In this procedure, a horizontal row of staples creates a stomach pouch with a 1-cm stoma that is anastomosed with a portion of distal jejunum, creating a gastroenterostomy.

Description : When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects ... and QT intervals, broad flat T waves), disorientation, depression, and hypotension.

Last Answer : a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : When the surgeon performs an appendectomy, the nurse recognizes that the surgical category will be identified as a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited ... with foreign bodies, fecal contamination, or purulent drainage would be considered a dirty case.

Last Answer : a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited source for infection, the exposure to which, to a large extent, can be controlled.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to refer to protrusion of abdominal organs through the surgical incision? a) Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency. b) Hernia A hernia is a weakness ... partial or complete separation of wound edges. d) Erythema Erythema refers to redness of tissue.

Last Answer : a) Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency.

Description : Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the ... IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Last Answer : a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours.

Description : Regarding the surgical patient, which of the following terms refers to the period of time that constitutes the surgical experience? a) Perioperative phase Perioperative period includes the preoperative, ... care unit and ends after a follow-up evaluation in the clinical setting or home.

Last Answer : a) Perioperative phase Perioperative period includes the preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative phases.

Description : 84. The circulating nurse will document “surgical count” in which of the following?

Last Answer : B. Intraoperative record

Description : A steady state within the body is termed a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain ... that is perceived as challenging, threatening, or damaging to the person's dynamic balance or equilibrium.

Last Answer : a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain the steady state or homeostasis.

Description : Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. ... as acetaminophen. BPPV is frequently stimulated by head trauma, infection, or other events.

Last Answer : a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the ... vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.

Description : Of the following tests, which uses a tuning fork between two positions to assess hearing? a) Rinne's In the Rinne's test, the examiner shifts the stem of a vibrating tuning fork between two positions ... 's auricle. d) Weber's The Weber's test uses bone conduction to test lateralization of sound.

Last Answer : a) Rinne’s In the Rinne’s test, the examiner shifts the stem of a vibrating tuning fork between two positions to test air conduction of sound and bone conduction of sound.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away? a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in ... lens of the eye. d) Glaucoma Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

Last Answer : a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects.

Description : What the roles do the outer ear the middle earand the inner ear play in hearing?

Last Answer : Need answer

Description : Which of the following statements describe refractive surgery? a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is ... a stable refractive error. The corneal structure must be normal and refractive error stable.

Last Answer : a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is considered a cosmetic procedure (to achieve clear vision without ... is performed to reshape the cornea for the purpose of correction of all refractive errors.

Description : The first dressing change for an autografted area is performed a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent ... is noted. Sanguineous drainage on a dressing covering an autograft is an anticipated abnormal observation postoperatively.

Last Answer : a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent infection may indicate infection and should be reported to the surgeon immediately.

Description : Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline ... risk for benign proliferative breast disease; it is not specific for women with breast implants.

Last Answer : a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid ... population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

Description : The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE) a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed ... retention before their menstrual period, BSE is best performed when the time for menses is taken into account.

Last Answer : a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.

Description : The nurse providing education regarding sexually transmitted diseases includes which of the following statements regarding herpes virus 2 (herpes genitalis)? a) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies ... very difficult to kill. Usually, the virus is killed at room temperature by drying.

Last Answer : a) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus. Therefore, a cesarean delivery may be performed if the virus recurs near the time of delivery.

Description : Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, characterizes which of the following bone disorders? a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis ... that comes from extension of soft tissue infection, direct bone contamination, or hematogenous spread.

Last Answer : a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease) results in bone that is highly vascularized and structurally weak, predisposing to pathologic fractures.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion ... the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Last Answer : a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site

Description : Accumulation of crystalline depositions in articular surfaces, bones, soft tissue, and cartilage is referred to as a) tophi. Tophi, when problematic, are surgically excised. b) subchondral bone. Subchondral ... refers to the escape of fluid from the blood vessels or lymphatics into the joint cavity.

Last Answer : a) tophi. Tophi, when problematic, are surgically excised.

Description : 56. The nurse is aware that acromegaly is a condition when growth hormone occurs in excess in adulthood or after epiphyses of the long bones have fused. The following are the typical features of the disorder except

Last Answer : C. The client grows taller

Description : Do you know any home remedies for ear infection?

Last Answer : Do the NeilMed sinus rinse, gargle with diluted vinegar and put Tea Tree oil drops in your ears. A bowl or 2 of Chicken Soup a day should help too! About all I can think of and should see results in a day or two.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to altered sensation of orientation in space? a) Dizziness Dizziness may be associated with inner ear disturbances. b) Vertigo Vertigo is the illusion of ... of sound with internal origin. d) Nystagmus Nystagmus refers to involuntary rhythmic eye movement.

Last Answer : a) Dizziness Dizziness may be associated with inner ear disturbances.

Description : The three tiny bones present in middle ear are called ear ossicles. Write them in correct sequence beginning from ear drum.

Last Answer : The three tiny bones present in middle ear are called ear ossicles. Write them in correct sequence beginning from ear drum.

Description : The three tiny bones present in middle ear are called ear ossicles. Write them in correct sequence beginning from ear drum.

Last Answer : The three tiny bones present in middle ear are called ear ossicles. Write them in correct sequence beginning from ear drum.

Description : Each middle ear consist of three tiny bones ____,___ and ____ collectively called____

Last Answer : Each middle ear consist of three tiny bones ____,___ and ____ collectively called____

Description : From ourter to inner side, the squence of three bones present in the middle ear of mammals is

Last Answer : From ourter to inner side, the squence of three bones present in the middle ear of mammals is A. ... Malleus, incus, stapes D. Malleus, stapes, incus

Description : What is the function of the bones in the middle ear?

Last Answer : These are responsible for transferring and amplifying the vibrations from outer ear to inner ear

Description : Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined hot zone for a period of a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should ... . Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic

Last Answer : a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were ... of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.

Description : An osteon is defined as a a) microscopic functional bone unit. The center of an osteon contains a capillary. b) bone-forming cell. An osteoblast is a bone-forming cell. c) bone resorption cell. An osteoclast is a bone resorption cell. d) mature bone cell. An osteocyte is a mature bone cell.

Last Answer : a) microscopic functional bone unit. The center of an osteon contains a capillary.

Description : When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there ... than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

Description : Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress ... of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Last Answer : a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994.

Description : Dupuytren's contracture causes flexion of the a) fourth and fifth fingers. Dupuytren's contracture causes flexion of the fourth and fifth fingers, and frequently the middle finger. b) thumb. ... Dupuytren's contracture causes flexion of the fourth and fifth fingers, and frequently the middle finger.

Last Answer : a) fourth and fifth fingers. Dupuytren’s contracture causes flexion of the fourth and fifth fingers, and frequently the middle finger.

Description : A specific BRCA1 cancer-predisposing gene mutation seems to occur more frequently among women of which descent? a) Ashkanazi Jewish Expression of the BRCA1 gene is an example of ... of treatment for tuberculosis) are at significantly increased risk for developing isoniazid-induced hepatitis.

Last Answer : a) Ashkanazi Jewish Expression of the BRCA1 gene is an example of inheritance in the development of breast cancer.

Description : Establishing financial security has been identified as a developmental task of which of the following groups? a) Middle adult The middle adult's tasks also include launching children, and ... . d) Teenager The teenager's primary developmental tasks include developing an identity and intimacy.

Last Answer : a) Middle adult The middle adult’s tasks also include launching children, and refocusing on one’s marital relationship.

Description : Nonadherence to therapeutic regimens is a significant problem for which of the following age groups? a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are ... -aged adults Middle-aged adults, in general, have fewer health problems, thus promoting adherence.

Last Answer : a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are managed with numerous medications and complicated by periodic acute episodes, making adherence difficult.

Description : No surgical operation should be performed during the following stage of anaesthesia: A. Stage I B. Stage II C. Stage III, plane 1 D. Stage III, plane 3

Last Answer : B. Stage II