A metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone is a) osteomalacia Osteomalacia is a metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone.

A metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate
mineralization of bone is
a) osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is a metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate
mineralization of bone.
b) osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is characterized by reduction of total bone mass and a
change in bone structure which increases susceptibility to fracture.
c) osteomyelitis
Osteomyelitis is an infection of bone that comes from extension of soft
tissue infection, direct bone contamination, or hematogenous spread.
d) osteoarthritis
Osteoarthritis (OA), also known as degenerative joint disease, is the
most common and frequently disabling of the joint disorders. OA
affects the articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is a metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate
mineralization of bone.
by

Related questions

Which one of the following drugs, when used chronically, is associated with the development of bone pain and mineralization defects such as osteomalacia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Dihydrotachysterol (c) Ergocalciferol (d) Etidronate (e) Norgestrel

Description : Which one of the following drugs, when used chronically, is associated with the development of bone pain and mineralization defects such as osteomalacia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Dihydrotachysterol (c) Ergocalciferol (d) Etidronate (e) Norgestrel

Last Answer : Ans: D

Of the following terms, which describes a condition characterized by abnormal spongy bone formation around the stapes? a) Otosclerosis Otosclerosis is more common in females than males and is frequently hereditary.

Description : Of the following terms, which describes a condition characterized by abnormal spongy bone formation around the stapes? a) Otosclerosis Otosclerosis is more common in females than males and is ... perforation. d) Otitis externa Otitis externa refers to inflammation of the external auditory canal.

Last Answer : a) Otosclerosis Otosclerosis is more common in females than males and is frequently hereditary.

Which of the following diseases is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain? a) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease The disease causes severe dementia and myoclonus.

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Which of the following diseases is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord? a) Multiple sclerosis The cause of MS is not known and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

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Which of the following terms refers to the symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which is characterized by a burning sensation in the esophagus? a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to a burning sensation in the esophagus and indicates GERD. b) Dyspepsia Indigestion is termed dyspepsia. c) Dysphagia Difficulty swallowing is termed dysphagia. d) Odynophagia Pain on swallowing is termed odynophagia.

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Emphysema is described as: a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD. b) A disease that results in a common clinical outcome of reversible airflow obstruction. Asthma is the disease described. c) The presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of two or three months in each of two consecutive years. Bronchitis is the disease described. d) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi Bronchiectasis is the condition described.

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Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away? a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects. b) Presbycusis Presbycusis refers to age-related hearing loss. c) Cataract Cataract is the development of opacity of the lens of the eye. d) Glaucoma Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

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When irrigating a colostomy, the nurse lubricates the catheter and gently inserts it into the stoma no more than _______ inches a) 3” The nurse should insert the catheter no more than 3 inches. b) 2” Insertion of the catheter 2 inches is inadequate. c) 4” Insertion of the catheter 4 inches is excessive and not recommended. d) 5” Insertion of the catheter 5 inches is excessive and not recommended.

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When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

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Exposure to sunshine and diet rich in fish liver oils, oatmeal and sweet potatoes will not cause the deficiency disease 1. Osteomalacia 2. Osteoporosis and frequent bone fractures 3. Rickets 4. Fatty liver (a) 1, 2 (b) 1, 2, 3 (c) 1, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4

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Last Answer : Ans:(b)

Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, characterizes which of the following bone disorders? a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease) results in bone that is highly vascularized and structurally weak, predisposing to pathologic fractures.

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Which of the following phases of psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks? a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, hyperalertness, and psychosomatic reactions, in addition to fear and flashbacks.

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Which of the following terms refers to muscle tension being unchanged with muscle shortening and joint motion? a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic. b) Isometric contraction Isometric contraction is characterized by increased muscle tension, unchanged muscle length, and no joint motion. c) Contracture Contracture refers to abnormal shortening of muscle, joint, or both. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

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Korsakoff’s syndrome is characterized by a) psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations. Korsakoff’s syndrome is a personality disorder characterized by psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations.

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Bell’s palsy is a disorder of which cranial nerve? a) Facial (VII) Bell’s palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis

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Which of the phases of a migraine headache usually lasts less than an hour? a) Aura The aura phase occurs in about 20% of patients who have migraines and may be characterized by focal neurological symptoms.

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Which of the following conditions of the inner ear is associated with normal hearing? a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by severe vertigo with normal hearing.

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The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative lamellar keratitis occurring in the first week after surgery. Studies suggest that since no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

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Which of the following terms refers to a condition characterized by destruction of the melanocytes in circumscribed areas of the skin? a) Vitiligo Vitiligo results in the development of white patches that may be localized or widespread.

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Which of the following connective tissue disorders is characterized by insoluble collagen being formed and accumulating excessively in the tissues? a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in death.

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Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a) a hereditary predisposition. Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a hereditary predisposition and production of a local reaction to IgE antibodies produced in response to common environmental allergens.

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Which of the following disorders is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a) Cushing’s syndrome The patient with Cushing’s syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

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Irritation of the lips associated with scaling, crust formation, and fissures is termed a) leukoplakia. Leukoplakia is characterized by white patches, usually on the buccal mucosa.

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Last Answer : a) leukoplakia. Leukoplakia is characterized by white patches, usually on the buccal mucosa.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia. b) Sinus tachycardia Sinus tachycardia occurs when the sinus node regularly creates an impulse at a faster-than-normal rate. c) Atrial flutter Atrial flutter occurs in the atrium and creates an atrial rate between 250-400 times per minute. d) Atrial fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT ... fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

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In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) < 30%? a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure b) II Stage II patients demonstrate FEV1 between > 30% and 80% c) I Stage I is mild COPD with FEV1 < 70%. d) O Stage O is characterized by normal spirometry

Description : In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) < 30%? a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure b) II Stage II ... I Stage I is mild COPD with FEV1 < 70%. d) O Stage O is characterized by normal spirometry

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Which of the following types of lung cancer is characterized as fast growing and tending to arise peripherally? a) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally. b) Bronchioalveolar carcinoma Bronchioalveolar cell cancer arises from the terminal bronchus and alveoli and is usually slow-growing. c) Adenocarcinoma Adenocarcinoma presents as peripheral masses or nodules and often metastasizes. d) Squamous cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma arises from the bronchial epithelium and is more centrally located.

Description : Which of the following types of lung cancer is characterized as fast growing and tending to arise peripherally? a) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that ... cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma arises from the bronchial epithelium and is more centrally located.

Last Answer : a) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally.

Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight. b) Simple Types of sleep apnea do not include a simple characterization. c) Mixed Mixed sleep apnea is a combination of central and obstructive apnea with one apneic episode. d) Central In central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

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Last Answer : a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight.

Another term for clergyman’s sore throat is a) chronic granular pharyngitis. In clergyman’s sore throat, the pharynx is characterized by numerous swollen lymph follicles. b) aphonia. Aphonia refers to the inability to use one’s voice. c) atrophic pharyngitis. Atrophic pharyngitis is characterized by a membrane that is thin, white, glistening, and at times wrinkled. d) hypertrophic pharyngitis. Hypertrophic pharyngitis is characterized by general thickening and congestion of the pharyngeal mucous membrane.

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The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. b) barrel chest. A barrel chest is seen in patients with emphysema as a result of overinflation of the lungs. c) funnel chest. A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum. d) kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

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Last Answer : a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis.

Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the patient breathes in the anesthetic mixture and experiences warmth, dizziness, and a feeling of detachment. c) II Stage II is the excitement stage, which may be characterized by struggling, singing, laughing, or crying. d) IV Stage IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

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Which of the following “awareness contexts” is characterized by the patient, the family, and the health care professionals being aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise? a) Mutual pretense awareness In mutual pretense awareness, the patient, the family and the health care professionals are aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise. b) Closed awareness In closed awareness, the patient is unaware of his terminality in a context where others are aware. c) Suspected awareness In suspected awareness, the patient suspects what others know and attempts to find it out. d) Open awareness In open awareness, all are aware that the patient is dying and are able to openly acknowledge that reality.

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Last Answer : a) Mutual pretense awareness In mutual pretense awareness, the patient, the family and the health care professionals are aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise.

Which of the following states is characterized by a decline in intellectual functioning? a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of such severity that it interferes with the person’s customary occupational and social performance. b) Depression Depression is a mood disorder that disrupts quality of life. c) Delirium Delirium is often called acute confusional state. d) Delusion Delusion is a symptom of psychoses.

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Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness. b) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. c) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. d) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

Description : Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the ... comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

Last Answer : a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness.

In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. b) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. c) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period. d) Downward The downward phase occurs when symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Description : In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under ... symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Last Answer : a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed.

Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress, impaired functioning, or accentuated risk of enduring severe suffering or possible death? a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994. b) Emotional disorder There is no universally accepted definition of what constitutes an emotional disorder. c) Anxiety Anxiety is defined as fear of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Description : Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress ... of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Last Answer : a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994.

Nurse Fely did her admission. She understands that the pain is characterized as A. Tenderness that is generalized in the upper epigastric area B. Pain in the left upper quadrant radiating to the left shoulder C. Tenderness and rigidity at the left epigastric area radiating to the back D. Tenderness and rigidity at the upper right abdomen radiating to the midsternal area

Description : Nurse Fely did her admission. She understands that the pain is characterized as A. Tenderness that is generalized in the upper epigastric area B. Pain in the left upper quadrant radiating to the ... to the back D. Tenderness and rigidity at the upper right abdomen radiating to the midsternal area

Last Answer : D. Tenderness and rigidity at the upper right abdomen radiating to the midsternal area

Deficiency of vitamin D causes (A) Ricket and osteomalacia (B) Tuberculosis of bone (C) Hypthyroidism (D) Skin cancer

Description : Deficiency of vitamin D causes (A) Ricket and osteomalacia (B) Tuberculosis of bone (C) Hypthyroidism (D) Skin cancer

Last Answer : Answer : A

Which of the following drug is implicated in the causation of osteomalacia of the bone? A. Steroid B. Estrogen C. Heparin D. Phenytoin

Description : Which of the following drug is implicated in the causation of osteomalacia of the bone? A. Steroid B. Estrogen C. Heparin D. Phenytoin

Last Answer : D. Phenytoin

Which of the following terms refers to a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent? a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent? a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone ... tendon and its attachment. d) Oblique An oblique is a fracture occurring at an angle across the bone.

Last Answer : a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent.

A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

Description : A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall. b) results in a pulling away of a ... to the skin or mucous membranes. A compound fracture involves damage to the skin or mucous membranes.

Last Answer : a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma. b) ... impacted. An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

Last Answer : a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation. b ... . An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

Last Answer : a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation.

Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the ... growth of the fragments of a fractured bone in a faulty position, forming an imperfect union.

Last Answer : a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

Most cases of osteomyelitis are caused by which of the following microorganisms? a) Staphylococcus Staphylococcus aureus causes 70-80% of bone infections.

Description : Most cases of osteomyelitis are caused by which of the following microorganisms? a) Staphylococcus Staphylococcus aureus causes 70-80% of bone infections. b) Proteus species While Proteus species are ... coli is frequently found in osteomyelitis, it does not cause the majority of bone infections

Last Answer : a) Staphylococcus Staphylococcus aureus causes 70-80% of bone infections.

When caring for the patient in traction, the nurse is guided by which of the following principles? a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the bone and is never interrupted.

Description : When caring for the patient in traction, the nurse is guided by which of the following principles? a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the ... are removed routinely. Traction must be continuous to be effective in reducing and immobilizing fractures.

Last Answer : a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the bone and is never interrupted.

Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to surgery to repair and stabilize a fracture. c) heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification refers to formation of bone in the periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Description : Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to ... periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.