Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Choose the correct statement about famciclovir:
A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains
of herpes simplex virus
B. It does not need conversion to an active
metabolite
C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes
simplex
D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus
retinitis
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes
simplex
by

Related questions

Ganciclovir is preferred over acyclovir in the following condition: A. Herpes simplex keratitis B. Herpes zoster C. Chickenpox D. Cytomegalovirus retinitis in AIDS patient

Description : Ganciclovir is preferred over acyclovir in the following condition: A. Herpes simplex keratitis B. Herpes zoster C. Chickenpox D. Cytomegalovirus retinitis in AIDS patient

Last Answer : D. Cytomegalovirus retinitis in AIDS patients

What is true of acyclovir treatment of genital herpes simplex: A. Topical treatment affords symptomatic relief in primary as well as recurrent disease B. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief as well as prevents recurrences C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences D. Continuous long-term topical therapy is recommended to prevent recurrences

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Last Answer : C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences

The high virus selectivity of acyclovir is due to: A. Its preferential uptake by virus infected cells B. Need of virus specific enzyme for its conversion to the active metabolite C. Its action on virus directed reverse transcriptase which does not occur in noninfected cells D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir: A. Herpes simplex type I virus B. Herpes simplex type II virus C. Varicella-zoster virus D. Epstein-Barr virus

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Last Answer : A. Herpes simplex type I virus

Though the following drug reduces HIV titre, it is used only to treat associated cytomegalovirus infection in AIDS patients: A. Didanosine B. Foscarnet C. Acyclovir D. Saquinavir

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Which of the following microorganisms is known to cause retinitis in people with HIV/AIDS? a) Cytomegalovirus Cytomegalovirus is a species-specific herpes virus.

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Last Answer : a) Cytomegalovirus Cytomegalovirus is a species-specific herpes virus.

The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

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The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

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Last Answer : a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not active against P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

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Last Answer : A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strain

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Genital Herpes is caused by Herpes Simplex Virus

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Last Answer : type –1 and type – 2.

What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally

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Last Answer : B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients

What is true in treating a patient with secondary herpes simplex:** A. Acyclovir inhibits viral transcription when applied in the prodromal phase B. Idoxuridine is better than acyclovir when applied topically C. Antivirals are contra indicated in immuno-compromised patient

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Features of clindamycin include the following: A. It is primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris C. It is not absorbed orally D. It is used to treat pseudomembranous enterocolitis

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Last Answer : B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris

Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b) Is active against strains of streptococci that are resistant to erythromycin (c) Is more active against Mycobacterium avium complex (d) Does not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci

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Last Answer : Ans: C

Choose the correct statement(s) about cefepime: A. It is a 4th generation cephalosporin B. It is active against many bacteria resistant to 3rd generation celphalosporins C. It is active by the oral route D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

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In the treatment of parkinsonism, bromocriptine differs from levodopa in the following respects except: A. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite B. It has a longer duration of action C. It activates dopamine D2 receptors, with little/antagonistic action on D1 receptors D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effect

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Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

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Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

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Widespread and prolonged use of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains because antibiotics: A. Induce mutation in the bacteria B. Promote conjugation among bacteria C. Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially D. All of the above

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Choose the orally active third generation cephalosporin having good activity against gram positive cocci as well: A. Cefdinir B. Ceftazidime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftizoxime

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Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate? (a) It is active against MRSA strains (b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia (c) It is a fourth-generation cephalosporin (d) It decreases prothrombin time (e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis

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Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

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Last Answer : D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

Select the correct statement about primaquine: A. It has no role in falciparum malaria B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria C. It is combined with chloroquine to treat resistant P. falciparum infection D. It is used to prevent recrudescence of falciparum malaria

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Ganciclovir is mainly used for the treatment of infection caused by (A) Cytomegalovirus (B) Candida albicans (C) Herpes zoster virus (D) Hepatitis B virus

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Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

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Which of the following is a disease modifying antirheumatic drug whose active metabolite inhibits the enzyme dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase: A. Leflunomide B. Nimesulide C. Sulfasalazine D. Colchicine

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Select the drug that is used orally to treat scabies: A. Permethrin B. Ivermectin C. Praziquantel D. Crotamiton

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Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Description : Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Last Answer : B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

The following drug reduces urine volume in both pituitary origin as well as renal diabetes insipidus and is orally active: A. Vasopressin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorpropamide D. Carbamazepine

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The Risks of Taking Famciclovir for Herpes Treatment ?

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Last Answer : Famciclovir is an oral drug used to reduce the time period of a herpes outbreak and suppress subsequent outbreaks. After taking the prescribed dose, it takes an average of five days until the ... have a kidney impairment. This herpes treatment is also not suitable for pregnant and nursing women.

Iodoxuridine is indicated in: A. Herpes simplex keratitis B. Herpes zoster C. Chickenpox D. All of the above

Description : Iodoxuridine is indicated in: A. Herpes simplex keratitis B. Herpes zoster C. Chickenpox D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Herpes simplex keratitis

Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

Description : Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

Last Answer : C. Herpes simplex keratitis

Choose the correct statement about allopurinol: A. It is a purine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase C. It is inactive itself, but its metabolite alloxanthine is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase D. Both allopurinol as well as its metabolite alloxanthine are noncompetitive inhibitors of xanthine oxidase

Description : Choose the correct statement about allopurinol: A. It is a purine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase C. It is inactive itself ... D. Both allopurinol as well as its metabolite alloxanthine are noncompetitive inhibitors of xanthine oxidase

Last Answer : B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase

Choose the antimalarial drug effective against multidrug resistant P. falciparum, which rapidly terminates an attack of malarial fever, but has a short duration of action, so that recrudescence is common: A. Proguanil B. Mefloquine C. Amodiaquine D. Artemisinin

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Last Answer : D. Artemisinin

Zidovudine inhibits the following virus/viruses: A. Human immunodeficiency virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Hepatitis B virus D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Description : Zidovudine inhibits the following virus/viruses: A. Human immunodeficiency virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Hepatitis B virus D. Both 'A' and 'B'

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The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus b. Viral infections occur at equal frequency anytime during the post-transplantation period c. CMV infection in the post-transplant patient is most likely a pulmonary process d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

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The following statement is not true of carbamazepine: A. It generates an active metabolite B. Its plasma half life decreases to nearly half of the original value after chronic use C. It is being used in mania D. It is not effective in complex partial seizures

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Last Answer : D. It is not effective in complex partial seizures

Which one of the following is a false statement about atopic eczema? a) It commonly begins by drug reaction. b) Super-added herpes simplex infection is a serious complication. c) The serum IgE level is normally raised. d) The skin lesions are typically itchy. e) Treatment with systemic steroids is often necessary.

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Last Answer : Ans: E

Choose the drug that can be used orally for intestinal amoebiasis, intravaginally for trichomonas vaginitis and topically for dermatophytosis: A. Quiniodochlor B. Furazolidone C. Ornidazole D. Hamycin

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Last Answer : A. Quiniodochlor

Choose the correct statement about the use of propranolol in anxiety: A. Being nonsedative, it is the drug of choice in chronic anxiety states B. It suppresses the psychological component of anxiety C. It suppresses the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about the use of propranolol in anxiety: A. Being nonsedative, it is the drug of choice in chronic anxiety states B. It suppresses the psychological component of anxiety ... the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations D. Both B' and C' are correct

Last Answer : C. It suppresses the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations

Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct

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Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

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Last Answer : C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy

Choose the correct statement about bambuterol: A. It is an orally acting bronchodilator B. It is a prodrug C. It inhibits the enzyme pseudocholinesterase D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement about bambuterol: A. It is an orally acting bronchodilator B. It is a prodrug C. It inhibits the enzyme pseudocholinesterase D. All of the above

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Select the drug that is active against both HIV and hepatitis B virus: A. Lamivudine B. Indinavir C. Didanosine D. Efavirenz

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Last Answer : A. Lamivudine

What is true of Quinupristin-Dalfopristin: A. It is a synergistic combination of two similar antibiotics B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is active against most resistant coccal infections D. All of the above are correct

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Piperacillin differs from carbenicillin in the following respect(s): A. It is more active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. It is active against Klebsiella as well C. It is acid resistant D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

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Is there a genital herpes treatment that gets rid of the virus for good?

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Last Answer : It is true that when you get herpes, you have it for life. Unfortunately, there is no permanent cure, just medications. Some treatments include antivirals, oral and topical medications, and more.