Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Erythromycin (d) Rifampin (e) Tetracycline

Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Erythromycin (d) Rifampin (e) Tetracycline
by

1 Answer

Answer :

Ans: D
by
selected by

Related questions

Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b) Is active against strains of streptococci that are resistant to erythromycin (c) Is more active against Mycobacterium avium complex (d) Does not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci

Description : Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b ... not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which out of the following antibiotics penetrates blood-CSF barrier the best (a) Erythromycin (b) Gentamicin (c) Tetracycline (d) Chloramphenicol

Description : Which out of the following antibiotics penetrates blood-CSF barrier the best (a) Erythromycin (b) Gentamicin (c) Tetracycline (d) Chloramphenicol

Last Answer : Ans: D

An aminoglycoside antibiotic should not be used concurrently with the following drug (a) Ampicillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampin

Description : An aminoglycoside antibiotic should not be used concurrently with the following drug (a) Ampicillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampin

Last Answer : Ans: B

In the empiric treatment of severe bacterial infections of unidentified entiology, this drug, often used in combination with an aminoglycoside, provides coverage against many staphylococci (a) Amoxicillin (b) Clavulanic acid (c) Erythromycin (d) Nafcillin (e) Tetracycline

Description : In the empiric treatment of severe bacterial infections of unidentified entiology, this drug, often used in combination with an aminoglycoside, provides coverage against many staphylococci (a) Amoxicillin (b) Clavulanic acid (c) Erythromycin (d) Nafcillin (e) Tetracycline

Last Answer : Ans: D

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low (b) It is inactivated by the gut microflora (c) It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well

Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic ... (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well

Last Answer : Ans: A

The plasma half life of pencillin-G is longer in the new born because their (a) Plasma protein level is low (b) Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature (c) Glomerular filtration rate is low (d) Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Description : The plasma half life of pencillin-G is longer in the new born because their (a) Plasma protein level is low (b) Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature (c) Glomerular filtration rate is low (d) Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Last Answer : Ans: D

Your 23-year-old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The past medical history includes anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin. Worried about compliance, you would like to treat this patient with a singly dose, so you chose (a) Cefixime (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Spectinomycin (e) Tetracycline

Description : Your 23-year-old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The past medical history includes anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin. Worried about compliance, you would like to treat this patient ... chose (a) Cefixime (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Spectinomycin (e) Tetracycline

Last Answer : Ans: D

In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol (b) Penicillin G, chlormphenicol, tetracycline, vancomycin (c) Imipenem, tetracycline, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin

Description : In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol ... (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin

Last Answer : Ans: A

An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discoloured and deformed anterior teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained. Which antibiotic could be responsible for the condition ? (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Tetracycline (c) Erythromycin (d) Genetamicin

Description : An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discoloured and deformed anterior teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained. Which antibiotic could be responsible for the condition ? (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Tetracycline (c) Erythromycin (d) Genetamicin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic (a) Demeclocycline (b) Methacycline (c) Minocycline (d) Doxycycline

Description : Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic (a) Demeclocycline (b) Methacycline (c) Minocycline (d) Doxycycline

Last Answer : Ans: C

The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antiimicrobial action is (a) They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane (b) They bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis (c) They bind to 50S ribosomes and interfere with translocation of the growing peptide chain in the bacteria (d) They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria

Description : The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antiimicrobial action is (a) They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane (b) They bind to 30S ribosomes ... peptide chain in the bacteria (d) They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria

Last Answer : Ans: B

The drug of choice for scarlet fever is (a) Tetracycline (b) Sulfonamides (c) Penicillin (d) Chloromycetin (e) Novobiocin

Description : The drug of choice for scarlet fever is (a) Tetracycline (b) Sulfonamides (c) Penicillin (d) Chloromycetin (e) Novobiocin

Last Answer : Ans: C

Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Cotrimoxaxole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Ampicillin

Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Cotrimoxaxole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Ampicillin

Last Answer : Ans: C

A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Spectinomycin (d) Doxycycline

Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Spectinomycin (d) Doxycycline

Last Answer : Ans: A

The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin

Description : The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin

Last Answer : Ans: B

The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients (a) Clindamycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Roxithromycin (d) Erythromycin

Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients (a) Clindamycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Roxithromycin (d) Erythromycin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Cyclosporine is used for (a) Allergies (b) Angina (c) Prevention of transplant rejection (d) Steroid deficiency (e) Treating led poisoning

Description : Cyclosporine is used for (a) Allergies (b) Angina (c) Prevention of transplant rejection (d) Steroid deficiency (e) Treating led poisoning

Last Answer : Ans: C

The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is (a) Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Formation of esterases that hydrolyze the lactone ring (c) Increased activity of efflux mechanisms (d) Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltranferases (e) Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane

Description : The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is (a) Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Formation of ... ) Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltranferases (e) Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane

Last Answer : Ans: A

Widespread and prolonged used of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains because antibiotics (a) Induce mutation in the bacteria (b) Promote conjugation among bacteria (c) Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially (d) All of the above

Description : Widespread and prolonged used of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains because antibiotics (a) Induce mutation in the bacteria (b) Promote conjugation among bacteria (c) Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate

Description : All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following drugs has demonstrated in vitro activity against Mycobacterium avium-intracellular(MAI)? (a) Vancomycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Erythromycin base (d) Troleandomycin (e) Erythromycin estolate

Description : Which of the following drugs has demonstrated in vitro activity against Mycobacterium avium-intracellular(MAI)? (a) Vancomycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Erythromycin base (d) Troleandomycin (e) Erythromycin estolate

Last Answer : Ans: B

A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is sensitive to all of the following drugs. Which of these drugs would be the best choice for this patient? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin

Description : A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is ... ? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin

Last Answer : Ans: B

A high school student presents with headache, fever, and cough of 2 day’s duration. Sputum is scant and nonpurulent and a Gram stain reveals many white cells but no organisms. Since this patient appears to have atypical pneumonia. You should initiate treatment with (a) Cefazolin (b) Clindamycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Trovafloxacin

Description : A high school student presents with headache, fever, and cough of 2 day's duration. Sputum is scant and nonpurulent and a Gram stain reveals many white cells but no organisms. Since this ... initiate treatment with (a) Cefazolin (b) Clindamycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Trovafloxacin

Last Answer : Ans: C

In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin

Description : In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin

Last Answer : Ans: D

The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves (a) Binding to a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Inhibition of translocase activity (c) Blockade of binding of aminoacyl – tRNA to bacterial ribosomes (d) Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyl transferases (e) Inhibition of DNA–dependent RNA polymerase

Description : The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves (a) Binding to a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Inhibition of translocase activity (c) Blockade of binding of ... (d) Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyl transferases (e) Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Last Answer : Ans: C

In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s) (a) It is effective in nearly all cases (b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms (c) Development of carrier state is less likely (d) All of the above

Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s) (a) It is effective in nearly all cases (b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms (c) Development of carrier state is less likely (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except (a) Long postantibiotic effect (b) Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes (c) MBC values close to MIC values (d) Slow development of resistance

Description : Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except (a) Long postantibiotic effect (b) Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes (c) MBC values close to MIC values (d) Slow development of resistance

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which fluoroquinolone has markedly enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes ? (a) Pefloxacin (b) Ciprofloxacin (c) Sparfloxacin (d) Norfloxacin

Description : Which fluoroquinolone has markedly enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes ? (a) Pefloxacin (b) Ciprofloxacin (c) Sparfloxacin (d) Norfloxacin

Last Answer : Ans: C

Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except (a) Gastrointestinal tract (b) Kidney (c) Skin (d) Nervous system

Description : Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except (a) Gastrointestinal tract (b) Kidney (c) Skin (d) Nervous system

Last Answer : Ans: B

Roxithromycin has the following advantages over erythromycin except (a) It is more effective in whooping cough (b) It causes less gastric irritation (c) It has longer plasma half-life (d) It is unlikely to precipitate theophylline toxicity

Description : Roxithromycin has the following advantages over erythromycin except (a) It is more effective in whooping cough (b) It causes less gastric irritation (c) It has longer plasma half-life (d) It is unlikely to precipitate theophylline toxicity

Last Answer : Ans: A

Hepatitits with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of erythromycin (a) Erythromycin base (b) Erythromycin stearate (c) Erythromycin estolate (d) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

Description : Hepatitits with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of erythromycin (a) Erythromycin base (b) Erythromycin stearate (c) Erythromycin estolate (d) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

Last Answer : Ans: C

Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Tobramycin (d) Erythromycin

Description : Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Tobramycin (d) Erythromycin

Last Answer : Ans: C

Prolonged oral therapy with the following antibiotic can damage intestinal villi resulting in statorrhoea and loose motions (a) Ampicillin (b) Tetracycline (c) Neomycin (d) Nystatin

Description : Prolonged oral therapy with the following antibiotic can damage intestinal villi resulting in statorrhoea and loose motions (a) Ampicillin (b) Tetracycline (c) Neomycin (d) Nystatin

Last Answer : Ans: C

The most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is (a) Chlortetracycline (b) Demeclocycline (c) oxytetracycine (d) Doxycycline

Description : The most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is (a) Chlortetracycline (b) Demeclocycline (c) oxytetracycine (d) Doxycycline

Last Answer : Ans: D

Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin

Description : Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : A. Erythromycin

Beta – lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be effective against all strains of each of the above organisms? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin

Description : Beta - lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be ... ? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which one of the following antibiotics is likely to be most effective agent in the treatment of an infection due to enterococci if used in conjuction with penicillin G? (a) Amikacin (b) Gentamicin (c) Netilmicin (d) Streptomycin (e) Tobramycin

Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is likely to be most effective agent in the treatment of an infection due to enterococci if used in conjuction with penicillin G? (a) Amikacin (b) Gentamicin (c) Netilmicin (d) Streptomycin (e) Tobramycin

Last Answer : Ans: D

The following drug can cause rickets in children by interfering with vitamin D action: A. Tetracycline B. Digoxin C. Phenytoin D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : The following drug can cause rickets in children by interfering with vitamin D action: A. Tetracycline B. Digoxin C. Phenytoin D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : C. Phenytoin

Anyone else terrified of taking antibiotics? How do you cope?

Description : Anyone else terrified of taking antibiotics? How do you cope?

Last Answer : KEEP TAKING IT! If the bad bacteria in your system doesn’t get killed off by the antibiotics you’re taking, they could come back stronger that ever! So strong that no antibiotic will kill them and then they will kill YOU!!! So KEEP TAKING IT like the good doctor said!!!

Anyone else scared of taking antibiotics due to reactions?

Description : Anyone else scared of taking antibiotics due to reactions?

Last Answer : Every single freaking thing you put in your mouth can have side effects. No, I’m not going to beat myself up over something so unlikely to happen.

Had anyone got rid of strep throat without taking antibiotics?

Description : Had anyone got rid of strep throat without taking antibiotics?

Last Answer : I’ve had them on and off since I had mono in junior high. I burn it out with scalding tea, then soothe with gargling salt water. Good luck. Go see a doctor though for real please.

Do anti-vaxxers also eschew things like tetanus shots and antibiotics?

Description : Do anti-vaxxers also eschew things like tetanus shots and antibiotics?

Last Answer : Some do I am sure. I am anti- OVER vaccinating, and this is why I won't be re-vaccinating my 7 and 10 yr. old cats that are indoors only at this time. They have enough immunity ... horses. Horses are highly susceptible to Tetanus, more so than other farm animals, though they are vaccinated as well.

Antibiotics causing swollen lymph nodes under jawline?

Description : Antibiotics causing swollen lymph nodes under jawline?

Last Answer :

Can a course of antibiotics leave you feeling very run down?

Description : Can a course of antibiotics leave you feeling very run down?

Last Answer : Absolutely.

Ear Infection - to take or not to take antibiotics?

Description : Ear Infection - to take or not to take antibiotics?

Last Answer : Any delay in treating an ear infection increases the odds of permanent damage. If I were you, I’d start the azithromycin immediately. Take the front load with food. It will be easier on your stomach.

Are there any kinds of drinks that can counteract the effect of antibiotics?

Description : Are there any kinds of drinks that can counteract the effect of antibiotics?

Last Answer : Anything with alcohol in it. Depending on the tablet milk can slow the rate of absorption

Can you smoke marijuana while on antibiotics?

Description : Can you smoke marijuana while on antibiotics?

Last Answer : Not legally.

Which toxic effect of aminoglycoside antibiotics is most irreversible in nature ? (a) Vestibular damage (b) Hearing loss (c) Neuromuscular blockade (d) Kidney damage

Description : Which toxic effect of aminoglycoside antibiotics is most irreversible in nature ? (a) Vestibular damage (b) Hearing loss (c) Neuromuscular blockade (d) Kidney damage

Last Answer : Ans: B