Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is: A. Chloramphenicol B. Cotrimoxazole C. Ciprofloxacin D. Ampicillin
Last Answer : C. Ciprofloxacin
Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s) (a) It is effective in nearly all cases (b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms (c) Development of carrier state is less likely (d) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : An aminoglycoside antibiotic should not be used concurrently with the following drug (a) Ampicillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampin
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : A 36-year-old woman recently treated for leukemia is admitted to hospital with malaise, chills and high fever. Gram stain of blood reveals the presence of gramnegative bacilli. The initial diagnosis is ... (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin (d) Imipenem plus cilastatin (e) Ticarcillin plus clavulanic acid
Description : The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development of carrier state: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Chloramphenicol D. Ceftriaxone
Last Answer : C. Chloramphenicol
Description : Amoxicillin is inferior to ampicillin for the treatment of the following infection (a) Typhoid (b) Shigella enteritis (c) Subacute bacterial endocarditis (d) Gonorrhoea
Description : Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudo membranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Vancomycin (d) Clindamycin
Description : Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Tobramycin (d) Erythromycin
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false? (a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam (b) It causes maculopapular rashes (c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection (d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA (e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use
Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for (a) Agranulocytosis patients (b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects (c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever (d) Treatment of anthrax
Description : What is true of drug therapy of typhoid fever: A. Combination of chloramphenicol with ciprofloxacin is superior to either drug alone B. Ceftriaxone (i.v.) is one of the fastest acting ... C. Prolonged treatment with chloramphenicol eradicates typhoid carrier state D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : B. Ceftriaxone (i.v.) is one of the fastest acting and most dependable treatment
Description : The drug of choice for scarlet fever is (a) Tetracycline (b) Sulfonamides (c) Penicillin (d) Chloromycetin (e) Novobiocin
Description : A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is ... ? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin
Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Spectinomycin (d) Doxycycline
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Erythromycin (d) Rifampin (e) Tetracycline
Description : A 19-year-old woman with recurrent sinusitis has been treated with different antibiotics on several occasions. During the course of one such treatment she developed a severe diarrhea and was hospitalized. ... difficile? (a) Ampicillin (b) Cefazolin (c) Clindamycin (d) Metonidazole (e) Tetracycline
Description : A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed ... most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : B. Chloramphenico
Description : Chloramphenicol is particularly effective in the treatment of (a) Diphtheria (b) Tuberculosis (c) Emphysema (d) Rickettsial diseases (e) Streptomyces pyogenes infections
Description : The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin
Description : The primary reason why chloramphenicol is not being used as the first line drug for typhoid fever in most areas is: A. Toxic potential of chloramphenicol B. Delayed defervescence with ... C. Delayed bacteriological cure with chloramphenicol D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi
Last Answer : D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi
Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s): A. It is effective in nearly all cases B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms C. Development of carrier state is unlikely D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate
Description : Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except (a) Long postantibiotic effect (b) Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes (c) MBC values close to MIC values (d) Slow development of resistance
Description : Which fluoroquinolone has markedly enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes ? (a) Pefloxacin (b) Ciprofloxacin (c) Sparfloxacin (d) Norfloxacin
Description : Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except (a) Gastrointestinal tract (b) Kidney (c) Skin (d) Nervous system
Description : Your 23-year-old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The past medical history includes anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin. Worried about compliance, you would like to treat this patient ... chose (a) Cefixime (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Spectinomycin (e) Tetracycline
Description : Prolonged oral therapy with the following antibiotic can damage intestinal villi resulting in statorrhoea and loose motions (a) Ampicillin (b) Tetracycline (c) Neomycin (d) Nystatin
Description : The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is (a) Nausea and vomiting (b) Loose motions (c) Constipation (d) Urticaria
Description : Which of the following is not a semisynthetic penicillin ? (a) Procaine penicillin (b) Ampicillin (c) Cloxacillin (d) Carbenicillin
Description : If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then (a) He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected ( ... oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely (d) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him
Description : Beta - lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be ... ? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin
Description : Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs does not require supplementation of dosage following hemodialysis? (a) Ampicillin (b) Cefazolin (c) Ganciclovir (d) Tobramycin (e) Vancomycin
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : What is the most important reason for restricted clinical use of chloramphenicol ? (a) Its narrow spectrum of activity (b) Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance (c) Its potential to cause bone marrow depression (d) Its potential to cause superinfections
Description : The most important mechanism by which gram negative bacilli acquire chloramphenicol resistance is (a) Decreased permeability into the bacterial cell (b) Acquisition of a plasmid encoded ... bacterial ribosome for chloramphenicol (d) Switching over from ribosomal to mitochondrial protein synthesis
Description : Which out of the following antibiotics penetrates blood-CSF barrier the best (a) Erythromycin (b) Gentamicin (c) Tetracycline (d) Chloramphenicol
Description : Chloramphenicol is more active than tetracyclines against (a) Bateroides fragilis (b) Treponema pallidum (c) Streptococci (d) Staphylococci
Description : An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discoloured and deformed anterior teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained. Which antibiotic could be responsible for the condition ? (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Tetracycline (c) Erythromycin (d) Genetamicin
Description : The appearance of markedly vacuolated, nucleated red cells in the marrow, anemia, and reticulocytopenia are characteristic dose-dependent side effects of (a) Azithromycin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Clindamycin (d) Doxycycline (e) Linezolid
Description : A high school student presents with headache, fever, and cough of 2 day's duration. Sputum is scant and nonpurulent and a Gram stain reveals many white cells but no organisms. Since this ... initiate treatment with (a) Cefazolin (b) Clindamycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Trovafloxacin
Description : A child presented with polyuria, weakness and fever. On the basis of investigations he was labelled to be suffering from Fancony syndrome. A history of taking some old left over antibiotic ... What could have been the antibiotic: A. Tetracycline B. Chloramphenicol C. Ampicillin D. Cephalexi
Last Answer : A. Tetracycline
Description : Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate? (a) It is active against MRSA strains (b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia (c) ... fourth-generation cephalosporin (d) It decreases prothrombin time (e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis
Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients (a) Clindamycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Roxithromycin (d) Erythromycin
Description : In the empiric treatment of severe bacterial infections of unidentified entiology, this drug, often used in combination with an aminoglycoside, provides coverage against many staphylococci (a) Amoxicillin (b) Clavulanic acid (c) Erythromycin (d) Nafcillin (e) Tetracycline
Description : This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment. The drug should not be used in ... with tazobactam (a) Amoxicillin (b) Aztreonam (c) Imipenem (d) Piperacillin (e) Vancomycin
Description : The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at ... which polymicrobial infection is identified, specifically-directed treatment for the predominant organism is satisfactory
Last Answer : Answer: c The use of empiric therapy without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data is appropriate when there is sufficient clinical evidence to support the diagnosis such that it would ... components of the infection if the body site is such that these microorganisms may be present
Description : A man has an Escherichia coli bacteremia with a low-grade fever (101.6°F). Appropriate management of his fever would be (a) Give acetaminophen 650 mg orally every 4 hours (b) Give aspirin 650 ... fever curve to monitor his response to antibiotic therapy (e) Use tepid water baths to reduce the fever
Description : Amoxicillin is inferior to ampicillin for the treatment of the following infection: A. Typhoid B. Shigella enteritis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Gonorrhoea
Last Answer : B. Shigella enteritis
Description : Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the following disease. (a) Granuloma linguinale (b) Chancroid (c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin
Description : Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas (a) They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology (b) They should be ... therapy of diarrhoea (d) They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea
Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic ... (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well