Description : Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except: A. Long postantibiotic effect B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes C. MBC values close to MIC values D. Slow development of resistance
Last Answer : B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes
Description : A bactericidal antibiotic has the following characteristic(s): A. Pronounced postantibiotic effect B. Large difference between MBC and MIC values C. Efficacy in the absence of host defence D. All of the above
Last Answer : C. Efficacy in the absence of host defence
Description : Which fluoroquinolone has markedly enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes ? (a) Pefloxacin (b) Ciprofloxacin (c) Sparfloxacin (d) Norfloxacin
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except (a) Gastrointestinal tract (b) Kidney (c) Skin (d) Nervous system
Description : The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur following limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is called (a) Time-dependent killing (b) The post antibiotic effect (c) Clinical synergy (d) Concentration – dependent killing (e) Sequential blockade
Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s) (a) It is effective in nearly all cases (b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms (c) Development of carrier state is less likely (d) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : An aminoglycoside antibiotic should not be used concurrently with the following drug (a) Ampicillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampin
Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Cotrimoxaxole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Ampicillin
Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Spectinomycin (d) Doxycycline
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Erythromycin (d) Rifampin (e) Tetracycline
Description : Your 23-year-old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The past medical history includes anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin. Worried about compliance, you would like to treat this patient ... chose (a) Cefixime (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Spectinomycin (e) Tetracycline
Description : Prolonged oral therapy with the following antibiotic can damage intestinal villi resulting in statorrhoea and loose motions (a) Ampicillin (b) Tetracycline (c) Neomycin (d) Nystatin
Description : The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration ... D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes
Last Answer : A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin
Description : All of the following statements regarding pentamidine isethionate are true except (a) it is indicated for treatment or prophylaxis of infection due to Pneumocystis carinii (b) it may be ... clinically significant effect on serum glucose (d) it is effective in the treatment of leishmaniasis
Description : Which fluoroquinolone has enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes: A. Pefloxacin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Sparfloxacin D. Norfloxacin
Last Answer : C. Sparfloxacin
Description : The most important mechanism of bacterial resistance to an aminoglycoside antibiotic is (a) Plasmid mediated acquisition of aminoglycoside conjugating enzyme (b) Mutational acquisition of aminoglycoside ... affinity of ribosomal protein for the antibiotic (d) Mutational loss of porin channels
Description : What is the most important reason for restricted clinical use of chloramphenicol ? (a) Its narrow spectrum of activity (b) Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance (c) Its potential to cause bone marrow depression (d) Its potential to cause superinfections
Description : The most important mechanism by which gram negative bacilli acquire chloramphenicol resistance is (a) Decreased permeability into the bacterial cell (b) Acquisition of a plasmid encoded ... bacterial ribosome for chloramphenicol (d) Switching over from ribosomal to mitochondrial protein synthesis
Description : Of the following which is the most important mechanism of concurrent acquisition of multidrug resistance among bacteria ? (a) Mutation (b) Conjugation (c) Transduction (d) Transformation
Description : Streptomycin sulfate is not absorbed orally because it is (a) Degraded by gastrointestinal enzymes (b) Destroyed by gastric acid (c) Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values (d) Insoluble in water
Description : Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate? (a) It is active against MRSA strains (b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia (c) ... fourth-generation cephalosporin (d) It decreases prothrombin time (e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Roxithromycin has the following advantages over erythromycin except (a) It is more effective in whooping cough (b) It causes less gastric irritation (c) It has longer plasma half-life (d) It is unlikely to precipitate theophylline toxicity
Description : Cefotaxime has the following properties except (a) It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria (b) It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa (c) It produces an active metabolite (d) It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections
Description : Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except (a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus (b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus (c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae (d) ß-lactamase producing E. coli
Description : All of the following factors may increase the risk of nephrotoxicity from gentamicin therapy except (a) age over 70 years (b) prolonged courses of gentamicin therapy (c) concurrent amphotericin B therapy (d) trough gentamicin levels below 2 mg/ml (e) concurrent cisplatin therapy
Description : Can anyone help me understand antibiotic resistance?
Last Answer : Sorry there are a few grammar issues in the above but I can’t edit it anymore.
Description : Does misusing Polysporin create antibiotic resistance?
Last Answer : Define “misusing”.
Description : The aminoglycoside antibiotic which is distinguished by its resistance to bacterial aminoglycoside inactivating enzymes is (a) Kanamycin (b) Sisomicin (c) Amikacin (d) Tobramycin
Description : What is break point concentration of an antibiotic ? (a) Concentration at which the antibiotic lyses the bacteria (b) Concentration of the antibiotic which demarks between sensitive ... which overcomes bacterial resistance (d) Concentration at which a bacteriostatic antibiotic becomes bactericidal
Description : Which of the following organisms is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly ? (a) Streptococcus pyogenes (b) Meningococcus (c) Treponema pallidum (d) Escherichia coli
Description : Beta - lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be ... ? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin
Description : In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin
Description : The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is (a) Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Formation of ... ) Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltranferases (e) Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane
Description : This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment. The drug should not be used in ... with tazobactam (a) Amoxicillin (b) Aztreonam (c) Imipenem (d) Piperacillin (e) Vancomycin
Description : Are there any kinds of drinks that can counteract the effect of antibiotics?
Last Answer : Anything with alcohol in it. Depending on the tablet milk can slow the rate of absorption
Description : Which toxic effect of aminoglycoside antibiotics is most irreversible in nature ? (a) Vestibular damage (b) Hearing loss (c) Neuromuscular blockade (d) Kidney damage
Description : Which aminoglycoside antibiotic causes more hearing loss than vestibular disturabance as toxic effect ? (a) Streptomycin (b) Gentamicin (c) Kanamycin (d) Sisomicin
Description : The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is (a) Nausea and vomiting (b) Loose motions (c) Constipation (d) Urticaria
Description : The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antiimicrobial action is (a) They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane (b) They bind to 30S ribosomes ... peptide chain in the bacteria (d) They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria
Description : The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its (a) Narrow spectrum of activity (b) Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction (c) Short duration of action (d) Neurotoxicity
Description : Which one of the following statements about one daily dosing with aminoglycosides is false ? (a) It is convenient for outpatient therapy (b) Adjustment of dosage is less important in renal ... often less toxic than conventional (multiple)dosing regimens (e) Under-dosing is less of a problem
Description : The following antibiotic(s) exert(s) a long postantibiotic effect: A. Fluoroquinolones B. β-lactams C. Aminoglycosides D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : A. Isoniazid
Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol
Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin
Description : Actions of progesterone include the following except: A. Rise in body temperature B. Endometrial proliferation C. Proliferation of acini in mammary gland D. Suppression of cell mediated immunity
Last Answer : B. Endometrial proliferatio
Description : Benefits of tamoxifen citrate therapy include the following except: A. Reduction in recurrence rate of breast cancer B. Improved bone mass C. Suppression of menopausal hot flushes D. Improved lipid profile
Last Answer : C. Suppression of menopausal hot flushes
Description : Sulfamethoxypyridazine and other related long acting sulfonamides have now gone into disuse because (a) They have produced serious cutaneous reactions (b) They have produced high incidence of crystalluria (c) They interact with many drugs (d) They do not penetrate blood-brain barrier
Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability
Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer
Description : Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action
Last Answer : B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use