Description : Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b ... not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients (a) Clindamycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Roxithromycin (d) Erythromycin
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients: A. Clindamycin B. Clarithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Erythromycin
Last Answer : B. Clarithromycin
Description : Hepatitits with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of erythromycin (a) Erythromycin base (b) Erythromycin stearate (c) Erythromycin estolate (d) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate
Description : In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol ... (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against multidrug – resistant strains of M tuberculosis, including those resistant to streptomycin? (a) Amikacin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Gentamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Spectinomycin
Description : The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin
Description : This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment. The drug should not be used in ... with tazobactam (a) Amoxicillin (b) Aztreonam (c) Imipenem (d) Piperacillin (e) Vancomycin
Description : Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs does not require supplementation of dosage following hemodialysis? (a) Ampicillin (b) Cefazolin (c) Ganciclovir (d) Tobramycin (e) Vancomycin
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is ... ? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin
Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : A. Isoniazid
Description : Clarithromycin is used for the following: A. Multidrug resistant M.tuberculosis infection B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient C. M.tuberculosis infection in a patient who develops jaundice due to first line antitubercular drugs D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient
Description : In the empiric treatment of severe bacterial infections of unidentified entiology, this drug, often used in combination with an aminoglycoside, provides coverage against many staphylococci (a) Amoxicillin (b) Clavulanic acid (c) Erythromycin (d) Nafcillin (e) Tetracycline
Description : Hepatitis with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of erythromycin: A. Erythromycin base B. Erythromycin stearate C. Erythromycin estolate D. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate
Last Answer : C. Erythromycin estolate
Description : A woman’s neglected hangnail has developed into a mild staphylococcal cellulites. Which of the following regimens would be appropriate oral therapy? (a) Dicloxacillin 125 mg q6h (b) Vancomycin 250 mg q6h (c) Methicillin 500 mg q6h (d) Cefazolin 1 g q8h (e) Penicillin V 500 mg q6h
Description : Which of the following statements about vancomycin is accurate? (a) It is bacteriostatic (b) It binds to PBPs (c) It is not susceptible to penicillinase (d) It has the advantage of oral bioavailability (e) Staphylococcal enterocolitis occurs commonly with its use
Description : A patient needs antibiotic treatment for native valve, culture-positive infective enterococcal endocarditis. His medical history includes a severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin G during the past year. ... /clavulanate (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin plus genatamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Vancomycin
Description : Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudo membranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Vancomycin (d) Clindamycin
Description : An aminoglycoside antibiotic should not be used concurrently with the following drug (a) Ampicillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampin
Description : A high school student presents with headache, fever, and cough of 2 day's duration. Sputum is scant and nonpurulent and a Gram stain reveals many white cells but no organisms. Since this ... initiate treatment with (a) Cefazolin (b) Clindamycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Trovafloxacin
Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Erythromycin (d) Rifampin (e) Tetracycline
Description : An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its (a) Rapid onset of action (b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells (c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity (d) Very broad spectrum of activity (e) Both (a) and (b)
Description : Roxithromycin has the following advantages over erythromycin except (a) It is more effective in whooping cough (b) It causes less gastric irritation (c) It has longer plasma half-life (d) It is unlikely to precipitate theophylline toxicity
Description : Which out of the following antibiotics penetrates blood-CSF barrier the best (a) Erythromycin (b) Gentamicin (c) Tetracycline (d) Chloramphenicol
Description : An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discoloured and deformed anterior teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained. Which antibiotic could be responsible for the condition ? (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Tetracycline (c) Erythromycin (d) Genetamicin
Description : Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Tobramycin (d) Erythromycin
Description : Select the macrolide antibiotic having clinically useful antileprotic activity: A. Azithromycin B. Clarithromycin C. Erythromycin D. Roxithromycin
Description : Two drugs that affect cell wall synthesis are a. Erythromycin and penicillin. b. Vancomycin and cephalosporin. c. Tetracycline and polymyxin b. d. Chloramphenicol and streptomycin.
Last Answer : a. Erythromycin and penicillin.
Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics
Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias
Description : Which fluoroquinolone has markedly enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes ? (a) Pefloxacin (b) Ciprofloxacin (c) Sparfloxacin (d) Norfloxacin
Description : Select the antimicrobial agent that can be used to treat with both methicillin resistant and vancomycin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection: A. Clarithromycin B. Clindamycin C. Linezolid D. Lincomycin
Last Answer : C. Linezolid
Description : All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate
Description : A 19-year-old woman with recurrent sinusitis has been treated with different antibiotics on several occasions. During the course of one such treatment she developed a severe diarrhea and was hospitalized. ... difficile? (a) Ampicillin (b) Cefazolin (c) Clindamycin (d) Metonidazole (e) Tetracycline
Description : The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur following limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is called (a) Time-dependent killing (b) The post antibiotic effect (c) Clinical synergy (d) Concentration – dependent killing (e) Sequential blockade
Description : Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the following disease. (a) Granuloma linguinale (b) Chancroid (c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin
Description : Sulfamethoxypyridazine and other related long acting sulfonamides have now gone into disuse because (a) They have produced serious cutaneous reactions (b) They have produced high incidence of crystalluria (c) They interact with many drugs (d) They do not penetrate blood-brain barrier
Description : Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to ß-lactam antibiotics because (a) They produce a ß-lactamase which destroys methicillin and related drugs (b) They elaborate an amidase which destroys ... low affinity for ß-lactam antibiotics (d) They are less permeable to ß-lactam antibiotics
Description : Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas (a) They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology (b) They should be ... therapy of diarrhoea (d) They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea
Description : Select the macrolide antibiotic that can be given once daily for 3 days for empirical treatment of ear-nosethroat, respiratory and genital infections: A. Erythromycin B. Azithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Clarithromycin
Last Answer : B. Azithromycin
Description : Regarding the recently introduced lipid formulation of amphotericin B, which one of the following statements is accurate? (a) Affinity of amphotericin B for these lipids is greater than ... (e) They have wider spectrums of antifungal activity than conventional formulations of amphotericin B
Description : Sterptomycin has no useful activity in the treatment of (a) Bubonic plague (b) Brucellosis (c) Lyme disease (d) Tuberculosis (e) Tularemia
Description : Regarding the antibacterial action of gentamicin, which one of the following statements is most accurate? (a) Efficacy is directly proportionate to the time that the plasma level of the drug is ... an inhibitor of cell wall synthesis (e) The antibacterial action of gentamicin is time - dependent
Description : The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is (a) Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Formation of ... ) Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltranferases (e) Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane
Description : The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves (a) Binding to a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Inhibition of translocase activity (c) Blockade of binding of ... (d) Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyl transferases (e) Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
Description : Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false? (a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam (b) It causes maculopapular rashes (c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection (d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA (e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use
Description : What is the most important reason for restricted clinical use of chloramphenicol ? (a) Its narrow spectrum of activity (b) Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance (c) Its potential to cause bone marrow depression (d) Its potential to cause superinfections
Description : The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its (a) Narrow spectrum of activity (b) Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction (c) Short duration of action (d) Neurotoxicity
Description : Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except (a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus (b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus (c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae (d) ß-lactamase producing E. coli
Description : Beta - lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be ... ? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin