Description : Which fluoroquinolone has enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes: A. Pefloxacin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Sparfloxacin D. Norfloxacin
Last Answer : C. Sparfloxacin
Description : The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : C. Lomefloxacin
Description : Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens: A. Norfloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Lomefloxacin
Last Answer : B. Ofloxacin
Description : All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except (a) Long postantibiotic effect (b) Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes (c) MBC values close to MIC values (d) Slow development of resistance
Description : This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment. The drug should not be used in ... with tazobactam (a) Amoxicillin (b) Aztreonam (c) Imipenem (d) Piperacillin (e) Vancomycin
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Superinfections are more common with (a) Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics (b) Short courses of antibiotics (c) Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines (d) Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria
Description : The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is (a) Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Formation of ... ) Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltranferases (e) Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Cefotaxime has the following properties except (a) It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria (b) It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa (c) It produces an active metabolite (d) It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections
Description : Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false? (a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam (b) It causes maculopapular rashes (c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection (d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA (e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use
Description : The appearance of markedly vacuolated, nucleated red cells in the marrow, anemia, and reticulocytopenia are characteristic dose-dependent side effects of (a) Azithromycin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Clindamycin (d) Doxycycline (e) Linezolid
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Gram negative organisms are largely insensitive to benzyl penicillin because (a) They produce large quantities of penicillinase (b) They do not utilize D-alanine whose incorporation in the cell wall is ... lipoprotein-peptidoglycan multiplayer cell wall of gram-negative bacteria (d) Both (a) and (b)
Description : An aminoglycoside antibiotic should not be used concurrently with the following drug (a) Ampicillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampin
Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s) (a) It is effective in nearly all cases (b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms (c) Development of carrier state is less likely (d) All of the above
Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Cotrimoxaxole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Ampicillin
Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Spectinomycin (d) Doxycycline
Description : Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except (a) Gastrointestinal tract (b) Kidney (c) Skin (d) Nervous system
Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Erythromycin (d) Rifampin (e) Tetracycline
Description : Your 23-year-old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The past medical history includes anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin. Worried about compliance, you would like to treat this patient ... chose (a) Cefixime (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Spectinomycin (e) Tetracycline
Description : Which of the following drugs has demonstrated in vitro activity against Mycobacterium avium-intracellular(MAI)? (a) Vancomycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Erythromycin base (d) Troleandomycin (e) Erythromycin estolate
Description : Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b ... not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci
Description : The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient ... therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
Last Answer : Answer: a, e The primary treatment for a perforated viscus is surgical, however antimicrobial therapy is an extremely important adjunct. Empiric antibiotic therapy for secondary ... whereas longer periods are indicated for immunosuppressed patients and with patients with extensive contamination
Description : The most important mechanism by which gram negative bacilli acquire chloramphenicol resistance is (a) Decreased permeability into the bacterial cell (b) Acquisition of a plasmid encoded ... bacterial ribosome for chloramphenicol (d) Switching over from ribosomal to mitochondrial protein synthesis
Description : Spectinomycin is an aminoglycoside-like antibiotic indicated for the treatment of (a) Gram-negative bacillary septicemia (b) Tuberculosis (c) Penicillin-resistant gonococcal infections (d) Syphilis (e) Gram-negative meningitis due to susceptible organisms
Description : A high school student presents with headache, fever, and cough of 2 day's duration. Sputum is scant and nonpurulent and a Gram stain reveals many white cells but no organisms. Since this ... initiate treatment with (a) Cefazolin (b) Clindamycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Trovafloxacin
Description : A 36-year-old woman recently treated for leukemia is admitted to hospital with malaise, chills and high fever. Gram stain of blood reveals the presence of gramnegative bacilli. The initial diagnosis is ... (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin (d) Imipenem plus cilastatin (e) Ticarcillin plus clavulanic acid
Description : Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except: A. Long postantibiotic effect B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes C. MBC values close to MIC values D. Slow development of resistance
Last Answer : B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes
Description : The following fluoroquinolones have augmented activity against gram positive bacteria except: A. Lomefloxacin B. Levofloxacin C. Gatifloxacin D. Moxifloxacin
Last Answer : A. Lomefloxacin
Description : The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antiimicrobial action is (a) They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane (b) They bind to 30S ribosomes ... peptide chain in the bacteria (d) They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria
Description : Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because (a) It kills bacteria that are not killed by-moxicillin (b) It reduces renal clearance of amoxicillin (c) It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin (d) It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin
Description : What is break point concentration of an antibiotic ? (a) Concentration at which the antibiotic lyses the bacteria (b) Concentration of the antibiotic which demarks between sensitive ... which overcomes bacterial resistance (d) Concentration at which a bacteriostatic antibiotic becomes bactericidal
Description : Of the following which is the most important mechanism of concurrent acquisition of multidrug resistance among bacteria ? (a) Mutation (b) Conjugation (c) Transduction (d) Transformation
Description : Widespread and prolonged used of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains because antibiotics (a) Induce mutation in the bacteria (b) Promote conjugation among bacteria (c) Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially (d) All of the above
Description : What is the most important reason for restricted clinical use of chloramphenicol ? (a) Its narrow spectrum of activity (b) Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance (c) Its potential to cause bone marrow depression (d) Its potential to cause superinfections
Description : The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its (a) Narrow spectrum of activity (b) Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction (c) Short duration of action (d) Neurotoxicity
Description : An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its (a) Rapid onset of action (b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells (c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity (d) Very broad spectrum of activity (e) Both (a) and (b)
Description : Regarding the recently introduced lipid formulation of amphotericin B, which one of the following statements is accurate? (a) Affinity of amphotericin B for these lipids is greater than ... (e) They have wider spectrums of antifungal activity than conventional formulations of amphotericin B
Description : Sterptomycin has no useful activity in the treatment of (a) Bubonic plague (b) Brucellosis (c) Lyme disease (d) Tuberculosis (e) Tularemia
Description : Regarding the antibacterial action of gentamicin, which one of the following statements is most accurate? (a) Efficacy is directly proportionate to the time that the plasma level of the drug is ... an inhibitor of cell wall synthesis (e) The antibacterial action of gentamicin is time - dependent
Description : The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves (a) Binding to a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Inhibition of translocase activity (c) Blockade of binding of ... (d) Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyl transferases (e) Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
Description : In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin
Description : A patient needs antibiotic treatment for native valve, culture-positive infective enterococcal endocarditis. His medical history includes a severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin G during the past year. ... /clavulanate (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin plus genatamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Vancomycin
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following common property (a) They are primarily active against gramnegative bacilli (b) They are more active in acidic medium (c) They readily enter cells and are distributed in total body water (d) They are nearly completely metabolized in liver
Description : Chloramphenicol is more active than tetracyclines against (a) Bateroides fragilis (b) Treponema pallidum (c) Streptococci (d) Staphylococci
Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic ... (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well
Description : Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except (a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus (b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus (c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae (d) ß-lactamase producing E. coli
Description : Piperacillin differs from carbenicillin in the following respect(s) (a) It is more active against pseudomonas aeruginosa (b) It is active against Klebsiella also (c) It is acid resistant (d) Both (a) and (b)
Description : Beta - lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be ... ? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin
Description : In the empiric treatment of severe bacterial infections of unidentified entiology, this drug, often used in combination with an aminoglycoside, provides coverage against many staphylococci (a) Amoxicillin (b) Clavulanic acid (c) Erythromycin (d) Nafcillin (e) Tetracycline