Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for (a) Agranulocytosis patients (b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects (c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever (d) Treatment of anthrax
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : A 36-year-old woman recently treated for leukemia is admitted to hospital with malaise, chills and high fever. Gram stain of blood reveals the presence of gramnegative bacilli. The initial diagnosis is ... (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin (d) Imipenem plus cilastatin (e) Ticarcillin plus clavulanic acid
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol ... (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : A patient presents with rheumatic fever and suspected allergy to penicillin. The antibiotic of choice is: A. Chloromycetin B. Sulphonamide C. Buffered penicillin D. Erythromycin could be better if is clindamycin E. Achromycin
Last Answer : D. Erythromycin could be better if is clindamycin
Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Cotrimoxaxole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Ampicillin
Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Erythromycin (d) Rifampin (e) Tetracycline
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : In the empiric treatment of severe bacterial infections of unidentified entiology, this drug, often used in combination with an aminoglycoside, provides coverage against many staphylococci (a) Amoxicillin (b) Clavulanic acid (c) Erythromycin (d) Nafcillin (e) Tetracycline
Description : A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is ... ? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin
Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic ... (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well
Description : Which of the following is not true of sulfonamides ? (a) They are primarily metabolized by acetylation (b) They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are ... in the urinary tract (d) Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections
Description : Sulfamethoxypyridazine and other related long acting sulfonamides have now gone into disuse because (a) They have produced serious cutaneous reactions (b) They have produced high incidence of crystalluria (c) They interact with many drugs (d) They do not penetrate blood-brain barrier
Description : Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the following disease. (a) Granuloma linguinale (b) Chancroid (c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin
Description : A 19-year-old woman with recurrent sinusitis has been treated with different antibiotics on several occasions. During the course of one such treatment she developed a severe diarrhea and was hospitalized. ... difficile? (a) Ampicillin (b) Cefazolin (c) Clindamycin (d) Metonidazole (e) Tetracycline
Description : Your 23-year-old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The past medical history includes anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin. Worried about compliance, you would like to treat this patient ... chose (a) Cefixime (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Spectinomycin (e) Tetracycline
Description : The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves (a) Binding to a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Inhibition of translocase activity (c) Blockade of binding of ... (d) Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyl transferases (e) Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
Description : Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false? (a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam (b) It causes maculopapular rashes (c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection (d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA (e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use
Description : Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate? (a) It is active against MRSA strains (b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia (c) ... fourth-generation cephalosporin (d) It decreases prothrombin time (e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Prolonged oral therapy with the following antibiotic can damage intestinal villi resulting in statorrhoea and loose motions (a) Ampicillin (b) Tetracycline (c) Neomycin (d) Nystatin
Description : Which out of the following antibiotics penetrates blood-CSF barrier the best (a) Erythromycin (b) Gentamicin (c) Tetracycline (d) Chloramphenicol
Description : The most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is (a) Chlortetracycline (b) Demeclocycline (c) oxytetracycine (d) Doxycycline
Description : An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discoloured and deformed anterior teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained. Which antibiotic could be responsible for the condition ? (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Tetracycline (c) Erythromycin (d) Genetamicin
Description : Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic (a) Demeclocycline (b) Methacycline (c) Minocycline (d) Doxycycline
Description : The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antiimicrobial action is (a) They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane (b) They bind to 30S ribosomes ... peptide chain in the bacteria (d) They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria
Description : The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin
Description : A woman’s neglected hangnail has developed into a mild staphylococcal cellulites. Which of the following regimens would be appropriate oral therapy? (a) Dicloxacillin 125 mg q6h (b) Vancomycin 250 mg q6h (c) Methicillin 500 mg q6h (d) Cefazolin 1 g q8h (e) Penicillin V 500 mg q6h
Description : Spectinomycin is an aminoglycoside-like antibiotic indicated for the treatment of (a) Gram-negative bacillary septicemia (b) Tuberculosis (c) Penicillin-resistant gonococcal infections (d) Syphilis (e) Gram-negative meningitis due to susceptible organisms
Description : Beta - lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be ... ? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin
Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is likely to be most effective agent in the treatment of an infection due to enterococci if used in conjuction with penicillin G? (a) Amikacin (b) Gentamicin (c) Netilmicin (d) Streptomycin (e) Tobramycin
Description : A patient needs antibiotic treatment for native valve, culture-positive infective enterococcal endocarditis. His medical history includes a severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin G during the past year. ... /clavulanate (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin plus genatamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Vancomycin
Description : Which of the following is not a semisynthetic penicillin ? (a) Procaine penicillin (b) Ampicillin (c) Cloxacillin (d) Carbenicillin
Description : The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its (a) Narrow spectrum of activity (b) Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction (c) Short duration of action (d) Neurotoxicity
Description : If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then (a) He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected ( ... oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely (d) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him
Description : The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is (a) Benzathine penicillin (b) Sodium penicillin (c) Potassium penicillin (d) Procaine penicillin
Description : Gram negative organisms are largely insensitive to benzyl penicillin because (a) They produce large quantities of penicillinase (b) They do not utilize D-alanine whose incorporation in the cell wall is ... lipoprotein-peptidoglycan multiplayer cell wall of gram-negative bacteria (d) Both (a) and (b)
Description : Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to ß-lactam antibiotics because (a) They produce a ß-lactamase which destroys methicillin and related drugs (b) They elaborate an amidase which destroys ... low affinity for ß-lactam antibiotics (d) They are less permeable to ß-lactam antibiotics
Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for: A. Agranulocytosis patients B. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever D. Treatment of anthrax
Last Answer : C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever
Description : A man has an Escherichia coli bacteremia with a low-grade fever (101.6°F). Appropriate management of his fever would be (a) Give acetaminophen 650 mg orally every 4 hours (b) Give aspirin 650 ... fever curve to monitor his response to antibiotic therapy (e) Use tepid water baths to reduce the fever
Description : A high school student presents with headache, fever, and cough of 2 day's duration. Sputum is scant and nonpurulent and a Gram stain reveals many white cells but no organisms. Since this ... initiate treatment with (a) Cefazolin (b) Clindamycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Trovafloxacin
Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s) (a) It is effective in nearly all cases (b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms (c) Development of carrier state is less likely (d) All of the above
Description : Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas (a) They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology (b) They should be ... therapy of diarrhoea (d) They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea
Description : Which one of the following is considered as the drug of last resort for human beings? (1) Penicillin (2) Tetracycline (3) Chloramphenicol (4) Streptomycin
Last Answer : (3) Chloramphenicol Explanation: Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic useful for the treatment of a number of bacterial infections. This includes use as an eye ointment to treat conjunctivitis.
Description : Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the ... neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients (e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur
Description : Regarding the antibacterial action of gentamicin, which one of the following statements is most accurate? (a) Efficacy is directly proportionate to the time that the plasma level of the drug is ... an inhibitor of cell wall synthesis (e) The antibacterial action of gentamicin is time - dependent
Description : The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is (a) Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Formation of ... ) Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltranferases (e) Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane
Description : Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b ... not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci
Description : This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment. The drug should not be used in ... with tazobactam (a) Amoxicillin (b) Aztreonam (c) Imipenem (d) Piperacillin (e) Vancomycin
Description : Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if ... (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential
Description : Which of the following is effective against tuberculosis? (1) Penicillin (2) Chloromycetin (3) Terramycin (4) Streptomycin
Last Answer : (4) Streptomycin Explanation: Streptomycin is an antibiotic drug, the first of a class of drugs called amino glycosides to be discovered, and it was the first antibiotic remedy for ... antibiotic. Streptomycin cannot be given orally, but must be administered by regular intramuscular injections.
Description : Waksman got the Nobel Prize for the discovery of : (1) Streptomycin (2) Chloromycetin (3) Neomycin (4) Penicillin
Last Answer : Streptomycin
Description : Which of the following is effective against tuberculosis ? (1) Penicillin (2) Chloromycetin (3) Terramycin (4) Streptomycin