Description : Which of the following mydriatics has the fastest and briefest action: A. Atropine B. Homatropine C. Tropicamide D. Cyclopentolate
Last Answer : C. Tropicamide
Description : The most suitable mydratic for a patient of corneal ulcer is (a) Atropine sulfate (b) Homatropine (c) Cyclopentolate (d) Tropicamide
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : The most suitable mydriatic for a patient of corneal ulcer is: A. Atropine sulfate B. Homatropine C. Cyclopentolate D. Tropicamide
Last Answer : A. Atropine sulfate
Description : When pupillary dilation-but not cycloplegia-is desired, a good choice is (a) Homatropine (b) Isoproterenol (c) Phenylephrine (d) Pilocarpine (e) Tropicamide
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : The following mydriatic does not produce cycloplegia: A. Phenylephrine B. Tropicamide C. Cyclopentolate D. Homatropine
Last Answer : A. Phenylephrine
Description : The mydriatic incapable of producing cycloplegia sufficient for refraction testing in children is: A. Atropine B. Hyoscine C. Homatropine D. Cyclopentolate
Last Answer : C. Homatropine
Description : Atropine is contraindicated in (a) Cyclic AMP (b) Inositol trisphosphate (c) Diacyl glycerols (d) G protein
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it (a) Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses (b) Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye (c) Is longer acting (d) Has weaker antimotion sickness activity
Description : Atropine does not exert relaxant/ antispasmodic effect on the following muscle (a) Intestinal (b) Ureteric (c) Bronchial (d) Layngeal
Description : A 70-year-old man has severe urinary hesitancy associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia. He has tried alpha blockers with little relief. His physician recommends a drug that blocks 5a - reductase in ... prescription for (a) Atropine (b) Clonidine (c) Hydralazine (d) Neostigmine (e) Propranolol
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : A patient has been taking digoxin for several years for chronic heart failure is about to receive atropine for another condition. A common effect of digoxin (at therapeutic blood levels) that can ... Increased atrial contractility (c) Increased PR interval on the ECG (d) Headaches (e) Tachycardia
Description : Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine? (a) Decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethonium (b) Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine (c) Increased skeleton muscle ... by neostigmine (d) Tachycardia caused by exercise (e) Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Atropine overdose may cause which one of the following (a) Gastrointestinal smooth muscle crampine (b) Increased cardiac rate (c) Increased gastric secretion (d) Pupillary constriction (e) Urinary frequency
Description : Propranolol does not block the following action of adrenaline (a) Bronchodilation (b) Lipolysis (c) Muscle tremor (d) Mydriasis
Description : Ephedrine is similar to adrenaline in the following feature (a) Potency (b) Inability to penetrate blood-brain barrier (c) Duration of action (d) Producing both a and ß adrenergic effects
Description : Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscannic drug for use before and during surgery because (a) It is potent and fast acting (b) It has no central action (c) It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions (d) All of the above
Description : Action of norepinephrine and epinephrine are terminated by (a) Reuptake into nerve terminal (b) Dilution by diffusion and uptake at extraneuronal site (c) Metabolic transformation (d) All of the above
Description : Cromolyn has as its major action (a) Block of calcium channels in lymphocytes (b) Block of mediator release from mast cells (c) Block of phosphodiesterase in mast cells and basophils (d) Smooth muscle relaxation in the bronchi (e) Stimulation of cortisol release by the adrenals
Description : Which of the following is an orally active drug that blocks sodium channels and decreases action potential duration? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Mexiletine
Description : When used as an antiarrhythmic drug, Lidocaine typically (a) Increases action potential duration (b) Increases contractility (c) Increses PR interval (d) Reduces abnormal automaticity (e) Reduces resting potential
Description : The biochemical mechanism of action of digitalis is associated with (a) A decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum (b) An increase in ATP synthesis (c) A modification of the actin molecule (d) An increase in systolic intracellular calcium levels (e) A block of sodium/calcium exchange
Description : Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of scopolamine ? (a) Irreversible antagonist at nicotinic receptors (b) Irreversible antagonist at muscarinic receptors (c) ... receptors (d) Reversible antagonist at muscarinic receptors (e) Reversible antagonist at nicotinic receptors
Description : Phenylephrine (a) Mimics the transmitter at post-synaptic receptors (b) Displaces transmitter from axonal terminal (c) Inhibits synthesis of transmitter (d) None of the above
Description : Propanolol can be used to allay anxiety associated with (a) Chronic neurotic disorer (b) Schizopherenia (c) Short-term stressful situation (d) Endogenous depression
Description : The ß-adrenergic blocker which possesses both ß1 selectivity as well as intrinsic sympathomimetic activity is (a) Alprenolol (b) Atenolol (c) Acebutolol (d) Metoprolol
Description : Which of the following is true of sildenafil (a) It enhances sexul enjoyment in normal men (b) It delays ejaculation (c) It is indicated only for treatment of erectile dysfunction in men (d) It blocks cavernosal a2 adrenoceptors
Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective a adrenergic blockers are not because (a) It is the only orally active a blocker (b) It improves plasma lipid profile (c) It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release (d) It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy
Description : The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an a adrenergic blocker is (a) Phenoxybenzamine (b) Ergotamine (c) Dihydroergotoxine (d) Tolazoline
Description : Guanethidine inhibits (a) Synthesis of transmitter (b) Metabolism of transmitter (c) Release of transmitter (d) Displacement of transmitter from axonal terminal
Description : Vasoconstrictors should not be used in (a) Neurogenic shock (b) Haemorrhagic shock (c) Secondary shock (d) Hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia
Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which of the following drugs can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP (a) Noradrenaline (b) Isoprenaline (c) Mephentermine (d) Isoxsuprine
Description : Continuous exposure of ctecholaminesensitive cells and tissues to adrenergic agonists causes a progressive diminition in their capacity to respond, this phenomenon is called as (a) Refractoriness (b) Desensitization (c) Tachyphylaxis (d) All of the above
Description : Dobutamine differs from dopamine in that (a) It does not activate peripheral dopaminergic receptors (b) It does not activate adrenergic ß receptors (c) It causes pronounced tachycardia (d) It has good blood-brain barrier penetrability
Description : Noradrenaline is administered by (a) Subcutaneous injection (b) Intramuscular injection (c) Slow intravenous infusion (d) All of the above routes
Description : Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except (a) Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis (b) Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic ß cells (c) Augmenting glucagons secretion from pancreatic a cells (d) Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization
Description : a2–adrenergic receptors are associated with following except (a) Increase in phospholipase C activity (b) Increase in potassium channel conductance (c) Decrease in calcium channel conductance (d) Increase in adenylyl cyclase activity
Description : Low doses of adrenaline dilate the following vascular bed (a) Cutaneous (b) Mucosal (c) Renal (d) Skeletal muscle
Description : A sympathomimetic amine that acts almost exclusively by releasing noradrenaline from the nerve endings is (a) Ephedrine (b) Dopamine (c) Isoprenaline (d) Tyramine
Description : Choose the correct statement from the following about a1 – adrenergic receptor agonists (a) Norepinephrine > isoproterenol > epinephrine (b) Norepinephrine < epinephrine > isoproterenol (c) Epinephrine = norepinephrine >> isoproterenol (d) Epinephrine > isoproterenol > norepinephrine
Description : Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings (a) By depolarizing the axonal membrane (b) By mobilizing Ca2+ (c) By a nonexocytotic process (d) Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors
Description : The most efficacious inhibitor of catecholamine synthesis in the body is (a) a - methyl – p - tyrosine (b) a - methyldopa (c) a - methyl - norepinephrine (d) Pyrogallol
Description : Select the correct statement from the following about a1 – adrenergic receptor agonists (a) Isoproterenol > epinephrine = norepinephrine (b) Epinephrine > isoproterenol > norepinephrine (c) Isoproterenol = epinephrine = norepinephrine (d) Epinephrine = norepinephrine > isoproterenol
Description : The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is (a) Neostigmine (b) Physostigmine (c) Pilocarpine (d) Methacholine
Description : Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is primarily used in preanaesthetic medication and during surgery (a) Glycopyrrolate (b) Pipenzolate methyl bromide (c) Isopropamide (d) Dicyclomine
Description : a1 – receptors are coupled with _______ G protein. (a) Gs (b) Gi (c) Gq (d) Go
Description : The cardiac muscarinic receptors (a) Are of the M1 subtype (b) Are of the M2 subtype (c) Are selectively blocked by pirenzepine (d) Function through the PIP2 ? IP3/DAG pathway