Cerebrovasular disease and hypertension is associated with (A) High calcium intake (B) High salt intake (C) Low calcium intake (D) Low salt intake

Cerebrovasular disease and hypertension is associated with (A) High calcium intake (B) High salt intake (C) Low calcium intake (D) Low salt intake
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Restriction of salt intake is generally recommended in (A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Hypertension (C) Cirrhosis of liver (D) Peptic ulcer

Description : Restriction of salt intake is generally recommended in (A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Hypertension (C) Cirrhosis of liver (D) Peptic ulcer

Last Answer : B

Restriction of sodium intake is commonly advised in (A) Addison’s disease (B) Diarrhoea (C) Hypertension (D) None of these

Description : Restriction of sodium intake is commonly advised in (A) Addison’s disease (B) Diarrhoea (C) Hypertension (D) None of these

Last Answer : Answer : C

The animal that do not develop hypertension in spite of heavy intake of salt is: (1) Sheep (2) Buffalo (3) Tiger (4) Camel

Description : The animal that do not develop hypertension in spite of heavy intake of salt is: (1) Sheep (2) Buffalo (3) Tiger (4) Camel

Last Answer : (4) Camel Explanation: The daily salt intake of camels is eight times that of a typical cow or sheep. Yet, surprisingly, they do not develop high blood pressure. Similarly, their blood sugar levels are twice those of other cud-chewing animals: still they do not develop diabetes.

The animal that do not develop hypertension inspite of heavy intake of salt is: (1) Sheep (2) Buffalo (3) Tiger (4) Camel

Description : The animal that do not develop hypertension inspite of heavy intake of salt is: (1) Sheep (2) Buffalo (3) Tiger (4) Camel

Last Answer : Camel

The following is true of fenfluramine except: A. It lacks CNS stimulant action B. Its use has been associated with cardiac abnormalities and pulmonary hypertension C. It causes weight loss independent of reduced food intake D. It enhances serotonergic transmission in the brain

Description : The following is true of fenfluramine except: A. It lacks CNS stimulant action B. Its use has been associated with cardiac abnormalities and pulmonary hypertension C. It causes weight loss independent of reduced food intake D. It enhances serotonergic transmission in the brain

Last Answer : C. It causes weight loss independent of reduced food intake

Consumption of iodised salt is recommended for prevention of (A) Hypertension (B) Hyperthyroidism (C) Endemic goitre (D) None of these

Description : Consumption of iodised salt is recommended for prevention of (A) Hypertension (B) Hyperthyroidism (C) Endemic goitre (D) None of these

Last Answer : C

Higher rate of lipogenesis is associated with (A) High proportion of carbohydrate in diet (B) Restricted caloric intake (C) High fat diet (D) Deficiency of insulin

Description : Higher rate of lipogenesis is associated with (A) High proportion of carbohydrate in diet (B) Restricted caloric intake (C) High fat diet (D) Deficiency of insulin

Last Answer : Answer : A

Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the progression of diabetic nephropathy. C. Hypertension is associated with sodium retention in diabetes patients. D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should be used in all patients with chronic hyperglycemia, regardless of the presence of hypertension. E. Diuretics, as single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Description : Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the ... single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCDE DISCUSSION: All of the answers listed are correct. By damaging endothelial cells, hypertension worsens macrovascular disease in all patients but especially in diabetics. Hypertension ... is not indicated because the chronic state of dehydration in such patients may become worse

Obesity generally reflects excess intake of energy and is often associated with the development of (A) Nervousness (B) Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (C) Hepatitis (D) Colon cancer

Description : Obesity generally reflects excess intake of energy and is often associated with the development of (A) Nervousness (B) Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (C) Hepatitis (D) Colon cancer

Last Answer : Answer : B

Obesity increases the risk of (A) Hypertension (B) Diabetes mellitus (C) Cardiovascular disease (D) All of these

Description : Obesity increases the risk of (A) Hypertension (B) Diabetes mellitus (C) Cardiovascular disease (D) All of these

Last Answer : D

The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out ... alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.

Last Answer : a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise ... and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

The nurse teaches the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which of the following measures to manage his disease? a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not recline with a full stomach. b) Minimize intake of caffeine, ****, milk, and foods containing peppermint and spearmint. The patient should be instructed to avoid the listed foods and food components. c) Elevate the foot of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks The patient should be instructed to elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks. d) Eat a low carbohydrate diet The patient is instructed to eat a low-fat diet

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which of the following measures to manage his disease? a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not ... blocks. d) Eat a low carbohydrate diet The patient is instructed to eat a low-fat diet

Last Answer : a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not recline with a full stomach.

Fluorosis is caused due to (A) Excessive intake of fluorine (B) Low intake of fluorine (C) Discoloration of the teeth due to low intake (D) All of these

Description : Fluorosis is caused due to (A) Excessive intake of fluorine (B) Low intake of fluorine (C) Discoloration of the teeth due to low intake (D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : A

Fecal urobilinogen is decreased in (A) Obstruction of biliary duct (B) Hemolytic jaundice (C) Excess fat intake (D) Low fat intake

Description : Fecal urobilinogen is decreased in (A) Obstruction of biliary duct (B) Hemolytic jaundice (C) Excess fat intake (D) Low fat intake

Last Answer : Answer : A

Which of the following terms is given to hypertension in which the blood pressure, which is controlled with therapy, becomes uncontrolled (abnormally high) with the discontinuation of therapy? a) Rebound Rebound hypertension may precipitate a hypertensive crisis. b) Essential Essential or primary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an unidentified source. c) Primary Essential or primary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an unidentified source. d) Secondary Secondary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an identified cause, such as renal disease.

Description : Which of the following terms is given to hypertension in which the blood pressure, which is controlled with therapy, becomes uncontrolled (abnormally high) with the discontinuation of therapy? ... Secondary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an identified cause, such as renal disease.

Last Answer : a) Rebound Rebound hypertension may precipitate a hypertensive crisis.

Of all the factors that increase the resistance of teeth to dental caries, THE MOST EFFECTIVE is,** A. The general nutrition of a child during the period of tooth formation B. The intake of fluoride during the period of enamel mineralization and maturation C. Periodic topical fluoride application by dental health care following tooth eruption D. Sufficient intake of calcium and Vitamin D during the period of enamel mineralization and maturation

Description : Of all the factors that increase the resistance of teeth to dental caries, THE MOST EFFECTIVE is,** A. The general nutrition of a child during the period of tooth formation B. The ... eruption D. Sufficient intake of calcium and Vitamin D during the period of enamel mineralization and maturation

Last Answer : B. The intake of fluoride during the period of enamel mineralization and maturation

A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked) and increased hair growth. Which of the following is most likely to produce the effects that your friend has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol

Description : A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked ... has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: C

The major calcium salt in bones is (A) Calcium carbonate (B) Calcium chloride (C) Calcium hydroxide (D) Calcium phosphate

Description : The major calcium salt in bones is (A) Calcium carbonate (B) Calcium chloride (C) Calcium hydroxide (D) Calcium phosphate

Last Answer : Answer : D

Calcium present with protein is known as free while in salt form is called as (A) Bound (B) Precipitated (C) Solid (D) Polymorphs

Description : Calcium present with protein is known as free while in salt form is called as (A) Bound (B) Precipitated (C) Solid (D) Polymorphs

Last Answer : Answer : A

Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and complications of massive transfusions. Which of the following statements are true concerning complications of blood transfusions? a. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by major ABO blood group incompatibility b. Nonhemolytic transfusion reactions are usually due to RH incompatibility and are therefore more common in women of childbearing age c. The most common complication of massive blood transfusion is dilutional thrombocytopenia d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Description : Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and ... d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Immediate hemolytic reactions are usually caused by blood group ABO incompatibility although they may be caused by antigens of other blood group systems ... when associated with massive transfusion during complex intraoperative procedures such as thoracoabdominal aneurysm resection

Why is the frequency of carbohydrate intake more important than the quantity: A. Low number of streptococcus mutans B. Hetero formation is better at low sugar concentration C. Homo formation is better at high sugar intake D. Restricted diffusion of acid through plaque

Description : Why is the frequency of carbohydrate intake more important than the quantity: A. Low number of streptococcus mutans B. Hetero formation is better at low sugar concentration C. Homo formation is better at high sugar intake D. Restricted diffusion of acid through plaque

Last Answer : D. Restricted diffusion of acid through plaque

Accepted therapeutic indications for the use of antimuscarinic drugs include all of the following except (a) Hypertension (b) Motion sickness (c) Parkinson’s disease (d) Postoperative bladder spasm (e) Traveler’s diarrhea

Description : Accepted therapeutic indications for the use of antimuscarinic drugs include all of the following except (a) Hypertension (b) Motion sickness (c) Parkinson’s disease (d) Postoperative bladder spasm (e) Traveler’s diarrhea

Last Answer : Ans: A

What do you understand by disease “Insomnia”? A. Color blindness B. Depression C. Hypertension D. Inability to sleep (Answer)

Description : What do you understand by disease “Insomnia”? A. Color blindness B. Depression C. Hypertension D. Inability to sleep (Answer)

Last Answer : D. Inability to sleep (Answer)

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Description : Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type ... ) Advanced age Advanced age, gender, and race are non-modifiable risk factors for stroke.

Last Answer : a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur with resultant loss of weight. When weight loss exceeds 10–15% of body weight, the complications of malnutrition interact with disease processes, with increased morbidity and mortality rates. The goal of nutritional support is maintenance of body cell mass and limitation of weight loss to less than 10% preinjury. The major impact of nutritional support in the trauma patient is to aid host defense. Under-nutrition may compromise the available host defense mechanism and may thus increase the likelihood of invasive sepsis, multiple organ system failure, and death. Resuscitation, oxygenation and arrest

Description : Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur ... requirements, caloric requirements should be distributed at a ratio of 70% as glucose and 30% as fat

Last Answer : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning body fuel reserves? a. The largest fuel reserve in the body is skeletal muscle b. Fat provides about 9 calories/gram c. Free glucose and glycogen stores are a trivial fuel reserve d. Body protein is a valuable storage form of energy

Disease caused by the excess intake of flu- orine?

Description : Disease caused by the excess intake of flu- orine?

Last Answer : Flurosis

Which of the following is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult? a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased fluid intake, a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

Description : Which of the following is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult? a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other ... level in the menopausal woman is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older woman.

Last Answer : a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased ... a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

Filtration fraction is increased in (A) Acute glomerulonephritis (B) Chronic glomerulonephritis (C) Hypertension (D) Hypotension

Description : Filtration fraction is increased in (A) Acute glomerulonephritis (B) Chronic glomerulonephritis (C) Hypertension (D) Hypotension

Last Answer : Answer : A

The filtration factor is decreased in (A) Glomerulonephritis (B) Early essential hypertension (C) Malignant phase of hypertension (D) Starvation

Description : The filtration factor is decreased in (A) Glomerulonephritis (B) Early essential hypertension (C) Malignant phase of hypertension (D) Starvation

Last Answer : Answer : A

The filtration factor is increased in (A) Glomerulonephritis (B) Malignant phase of hypertension (C) Early essential hypertension (D) Acute nephritis

Description : The filtration factor is increased in (A) Glomerulonephritis (B) Malignant phase of hypertension (C) Early essential hypertension (D) Acute nephritis

Last Answer : Answer : B

The filtration factor tends to be normal in (A) Early essential hypertension (B) Malignant phase of hypertension (C) Glomerulonephritis (D) Acute nephritis

Description : The filtration factor tends to be normal in (A) Early essential hypertension (B) Malignant phase of hypertension (C) Glomerulonephritis (D) Acute nephritis

Last Answer : Answer : A

Urea clearance is lowered in (A) Acute nephritis (B) Pneumonia (C) Early stage of nephritic syndrome (D) Benign hypertension

Description : Urea clearance is lowered in (A) Acute nephritis (B) Pneumonia (C) Early stage of nephritic syndrome (D) Benign hypertension

Last Answer : Answer : A

Creatinine clearance is deceased in (A) Acute tubular necrosis (B) Acute glomerulonephritis (C) Hypertension (D) Myopathies

Description : Creatinine clearance is deceased in (A) Acute tubular necrosis (B) Acute glomerulonephritis (C) Hypertension (D) Myopathies

Last Answer : Answer : D

A 53-year-old man presented with hypertension of 150/110 mmHg. He is generally asymptomatic and has no previous medical history of note. He is a smoker of 5 cigarettes daily and drinks modest quantities of alcohol. He takes no prescribed medications. Examination reveals a BMI of 33.5 kg/2 but nil else. The following detail his investigations: Serum sodium 146 mmol/l (NR 133-145) Serum potassium 3.2 mmol/l (NR 3.5 - 5) Urinary potassium excretion 42 mmol/l (NR less than 30) What is the likely diagnosis? 1) Adrenocortical adenoma 2) Bartter's syndrome 3) Liddle's syndrome 4) Liquorice ingestion 5) Pheochromocytoma

Description : A 53-year-old man presented with hypertension of 150/110 mmHg. He is generally asymptomatic and has no previous medical history of note. He is a smoker of 5 cigarettes daily and drinks ... Adrenocortical adenoma 2) Bartter's syndrome 3) Liddle's syndrome 4) Liquorice ingestion 5) Pheochromocytoma

Last Answer : Answers-1 This patient is most likely to have Conn's syndrome as reflected by the hypokalaemic hypertension. Liquorice ingestion or Liddle's syndrome are again possible causes of ... hypertension (often diastolic hypertension), muscular weakness, paresthesias, headache, polyuria, and polydipsia."

Which of the following may be responsible for a hypokalaemic hypertension 1) Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia 2) Barter's syndrome 3) Diabetic nephropathy 4) Liddle's syndrome 5) Type IV renal tubular acidosis

Description : Which of the following may be responsible for a hypokalaemic hypertension 1) Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia 2) Barter's syndrome 3) Diabetic nephropathy 4) Liddle's syndrome 5) Type IV renal tubular acidosis

Last Answer : Answers-4 Liddle's syndrome is typically asscoiated with hypokalaemic hypertension and low renin and aldosterone concentrations - the so called pseudo-hyperaldosteronism. Barter's syndrome is associated ... , which may also be produced with diabetic nephropathy. Hence hyperkalaemia is more typical.

Which of the following is a perfect match? (1) Coronary attack - vascular dilation (2) Atherosclerosis - blockage of arteries (3) Hypertension - low blood pressure (4) Hypotension - heart attack

Description : Which of the following is a perfect match? (1) Coronary attack - vascular dilation (2) Atherosclerosis - blockage of arteries (3) Hypertension - low blood pressure (4) Hypotension - heart attack

Last Answer : (4) Hypotension - heart attack Explanation: In physiology and medicine, hypotension is abnormally low blood pressure, especially in the arteries of the systemic circulation. Hypotension is the opposite of ... force of blood pushing against the walls of the arteries as the heart pumps out blood.

Selective inhibition of thromboxane A2 synthesis by low dose aspirin therapy might retard the progression of: A. Pregnancy induced hypertension B. Steroid induced hypertension C. Renal hypertension D. Malignant hypertension

Description : Selective inhibition of thromboxane A2 synthesis by low dose aspirin therapy might retard the progression of: A. Pregnancy induced hypertension B. Steroid induced hypertension C. Renal hypertension D. Malignant hypertension

Last Answer : A. Pregnancy induced hypertension

Which of the following is a perfect match ? (1) Coronary attack – vascular dilation (2) Atherosclerosis – blockage of arteries (3) Hypertension – low blood pressure (4) Hypotension – heart attack

Description : Which of the following is a perfect match ? (1) Coronary attack – vascular dilation (2) Atherosclerosis – blockage of arteries (3) Hypertension – low blood pressure (4) Hypotension – heart attack

Last Answer : Hypotension – heart attack

Absorption of calcium is increased on a (A) High protein diet (B) Low protein diet (C) High fat diet (D) Low fat diet

Description : Absorption of calcium is increased on a (A) High protein diet (B) Low protein diet (C) High fat diet (D) Low fat diet

Last Answer : Answer : A

The characteristic of hyperparathyroidism is (A) Low serum calcium (B) High serum phosphorous (C) Low serum calcium and high serum phosphorous (D) High serum calcium and low serum phosphate

Description : The characteristic of hyperparathyroidism is (A) Low serum calcium (B) High serum phosphorous (C) Low serum calcium and high serum phosphorous (D) High serum calcium and low serum phosphate

Last Answer : Answer : D

In Vitamin D poisoning (hyper-vitaminosis) (A) Both serum and urinary “Ca” (B) The serum Ca is low and urinary calcium high (C) The serum “Ca” is increased and urinary “Ca” is normal (D) Both serum and urinary “Ca” are low

Description : In Vitamin D poisoning (hyper-vitaminosis) (A) Both serum and urinary “Ca” (B) The serum Ca is low and urinary calcium high (C) The serum “Ca” is increased and urinary “Ca” is normal (D) Both serum and urinary “Ca” are low

Last Answer : Answer : A

In hypoparathyroidism (A) Plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorous are low (B) Plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorous are high (C) Plasma calcium is low and inorganic phosphorous high (D) Plasma calcium is high and inorganic phosphorous low

Description : In hypoparathyroidism (A) Plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorous are low (B) Plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorous are high (C) Plasma calcium is low and inorganic phosphorous high (D) Plasma calcium is high and inorganic phosphorous low

Last Answer : Answer : C

A 55 year-old female complaining of vague tiredness is found to have a serum corrected calcium concentration of 2.9 mmol/l. Examination was unremarkable. Which of the following results confirms the suspected diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism? 1) High normal 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D concentration 2) High normal 24 hour urinary calcium concentration 3) High normal plasma parathyroid hormone concentration 4) Low normal plasma phosphate concentration 5) Low normal serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D concentration

Description : A 55 year-old female complaining of vague tiredness is found to have a serum corrected calcium concentration of 2.9 mmol/l. Examination was unremarkable. Which of the following results ... 4) Low normal plasma phosphate concentration 5) Low normal serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D concentration

Last Answer : Answers-3 Bit too easy really. A high or even normal PTH concentration in the presence of hypercalcaemia would support the diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism. A high urinary Calcium concentration may ... but neither confirm the diagnosis. Elevated 1,25 VitD suggests a diagnosis of hypervitaminosis D.

A high fibre diet is associated with reduced incidence of (A) Cardiovascular disease (B) C.N.S. disease (C) Liver disease (D) Skin disease

Description : A high fibre diet is associated with reduced incidence of (A) Cardiovascular disease (B) C.N.S. disease (C) Liver disease (D) Skin disease

Last Answer : Answer : A

An animal is in negative nitrogen balance when (A) Intake exceeds output (B) New tissue is being synthesized (C) Output exceeds intake (D) Intake is equal to output

Description : An animal is in negative nitrogen balance when (A) Intake exceeds output (B) New tissue is being synthesized (C) Output exceeds intake (D) Intake is equal to output

Last Answer : Answer : C

Orotic aciduria can be controlled by (A) Oral administration of orotic acid (B) Decreasing the dietary intake of orotic acid (C) Decreasing the dietary intake of pyrimidines (D) Oral administration of uridine

Description : Orotic aciduria can be controlled by (A) Oral administration of orotic acid (B) Decreasing the dietary intake of orotic acid (C) Decreasing the dietary intake of pyrimidines (D) Oral administration of uridine

Last Answer : Answer : D

The primary stimulus for insulin secretion is increased. (A) Blood level of epinephrine (B) Blood level of glucagon (C) Blood level of glucose (D) Water intake

Description : The primary stimulus for insulin secretion is increased. (A) Blood level of epinephrine (B) Blood level of glucagon (C) Blood level of glucose (D) Water intake

Last Answer : Answer : C

Iron therapy is ineffective in which of the following conditions: (A) Chronic blood loss (B) Inadequate Fe intake (C) Hypochromic anaemia of pregnancy (D) Thalassaemia minor

Description : Iron therapy is ineffective in which of the following conditions: (A) Chronic blood loss (B) Inadequate Fe intake (C) Hypochromic anaemia of pregnancy (D) Thalassaemia minor

Last Answer : Answer : D

Daily intake of potassium for a normal person should be (A) 1 gm (B) 2 gm (C) 3 gm (D) 4 gm

Description : Daily intake of potassium for a normal person should be (A) 1 gm (B) 2 gm (C) 3 gm (D) 4 gm

Last Answer : Answer : D